To study in English speaking countries you must have to appear in English Proficiency exams like IELTS, TOEFL, GRE, GMAT, PTE,TOIEC , Cambridge ESOL and many more as required by the concern country and the university admission criteria.

The main reason for taking these exams is education pattern, language of instruction and communication language in major countries is English and India is not English speaking country so cop up with different culture easily and can simply grab the education you need to prove that you are good with English and capable to handle yourself in other country.

Each and every country have different admission criteria and study pattern. Student has to understand his own ability and destination to study.

IELTS is worldwide accepted English proficiency examination approved by all major universities and colleges of five major countries USA, UK, Australia, Canada and New Zealand.

There is similarity in the test structure of GRE and GMAT. These both test are required to take admission in USA and Canadian Universities.

We are at Shreeji Education providing best coaching to the student to grab the desire bands and score to get the admission in their choice of university and course to study. We are having best faculty to deliver best techniques to crack the English Proficiency exams. We have well organized library, computer lab and material to study. We are also nodal agent of both British Council and IDP Australia so we can assist you to take the test date.

Test preparation

  IELTS TEST PREPARATION

WHAT IS IELTS?

The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is an internationally owned and globally recognized direct English language assessment of the highest quality and integrity readily available throughout the world.  IELTS test is a highly dependable, practical and valid English language assessment primarily used by those seeking international education, professional recognition, bench-marking to international standards and global mobility. IELTS exam is owned, developed and delivered through the partnership of the British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia and the University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations. IELTS test helps students show their ability to take the courses in English. The universities - mostly from UK, Canada, and Australia, seek for IELTS test report as an admission requirement. The score that students must obtain for eligible in the University depends upon the course and the university chosen.

 

The IELTS test format
 
All candidates must complete four Modules - Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking to obtain an IELTS Test Report Form. Candidates are tested in Listening, , Writing and Speaking.  All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking Modules.  There is a choice between Academic and General Training in the and Writing Modules.

Total Test Duration:  2 hours 45 minutes

The first three modules - Listening, and Writing - must be completed in one day.  The Speaking Module may be taken, at the discretion of the test centre, in the period seven days before or after the other Modules. The tests are designed to cover the full range of ability from non-user to expert user. 

IELTS TEST MODULES

Sections that you must attend while taking IELTS Test

1. LISTENING

Duration and format
The Listening Module takes around 30 minutes. There are 40 questions. There are four sections. The Listening Module is recorded on a CD and is played ONCE only. During the test, time is given for candidates to read the questions and write down and check their answers. Answers are written on the Question Paper as candidates listen. When the recording ends ten minutes are allowed for candidates to transfer their answers to an Answer Sheet.

Task types
The first two sections are concerned with social needs. There is a conversation between two speakers and then a monologue. For example – a conversation about travel arrangements or decisions on a night out, and a speech about student services on a University campus or arrangements for meals during a conference. The final two sections are concerned with situations related more closely to educational or training contexts. There is a conversation between up to four people and then a further monologue. For example – a conversation between a tutor and a student about an assignment or between three students planning a research project, and a lecture or talk of general academic interest. A range of English accents and dialects are used in the recordings which reflects the international usage of IELTS exam. A variety of questions are used, chosen from the following types:  
» multiple choice
» short-answer questions
» sentence completion
» notes/summary/diagram/flow-chart/ table completion
»  labeling a diagram which has numbered parts
»  classification
»  matching

Marking and Assessment
One mark is awarded for each correct answer in the 40 item test.
A confidential band score conversion table is produced for each
version of the Listening Module, which translates scores out of
40 into the IELTS 9-band scale. Scores are reported as a whole
band or a half band. Care should be taken when writing answers on the Answer Sheet as poor spelling and grammar are penalized.

» Sample Questions for Listening Module

2. READING

Duration and format
The Reading Module takes 60 minutes. There are 40 questions, based on three reading passages with a total of 2,000 to 2,750 words. Texts and questions appear on a Question Paper which candidates can write on but not remove from the test room. All answers must be entered on an Answer Sheet during the 60-minute test. No extra time is allowed to transfer answers. 
 

Task Types
A variety of questions are used, chosen from the following types:

» multiple choice
» short-answer questions
» sentence completion
»   notes/summary/diagram/flow-chart/ table completion
» choosing from a ‘heading bank’ for identified paragraphs/
sections of the text
» identification of writer’s views/claims
»  yes, no or not given
» identification of information in the text
»  yes, no or not
» given/true, false or not given
» classification
» matching lists/phrases

Academic Reading
Texts are taken from magazines, journals, books, and newspapers. Texts have been written for a non-specialist audience. All the topics are of general interest. They deal with issues which are interesting, recognizably appropriate and accessible to candidates entering undergraduate or postgraduate courses or seeking professional registration. At least one text contains detailed logical argument. One text may contain non-verbal materials such as diagrams, graphs or illustrations. If texts contain technical terms then a simple glossary is provided.

Marking and assessment
One mark is awarded for each correct answer in the 40 item test. A Band Score conversion table is produced for each version of the Reading Module which translates scores out of 40 into the IELTS 9-band scale. Scores are reported as a whole band or a half band. Care should be taken when writing answers on the Answer Sheet as poor spelling and grammar are penalized.

» Sample Questions for Reading Module

3. WRITING

Duration and format
The Writing Module takes 60 minutes. There are two tasks to complete. It is suggested that about 20 minutes is spent on Task 1 which requires candidates to write at least 150 words. Task 2 requires at least 250 words and should take about 40 minutes. Candidates may write on the Question Paper but this cannot be taken from the test room and will not be seen by the examiner. Answers must be given on the Answer Sheet and must be written in full. Notes are not acceptable as answers.

Task Types

Academic Writing
In Task 1 candidates are asked to describe some information (graph/table/chart/diagram), and to present the description in their own words. Depending on the type of input and the task suggested, candidates are assessed on their ability to:
» organize, present and possibly compare data
» describe the stages of a process or procedure
» describe an object or event or sequence of events
» explain how something works

In Task 2 candidates are presented with a point of view or argument or problem. Candidates are assessed on their ability to: » present the solution to a problem
» present and justify an opinion
» compare and contrast evidence, opinions and implications
» evaluate and challenge ideas, evidence or an argument

The issues raised are of general interest to, suitable for and easily understood by candidates entering undergraduate or postgraduate studies or seeking professional registration.

WRITING TASK 1

Duration and format
The Writing Module takes 60 minutes. There are two tasks to complete. It is suggested that about 20 minutes is spent on Task 1 which requires candidates to write at least 150 words. Task 2 requires at least 250 words and should take about 40 minutes. Candidates may write on the Question Paper but this cannot be taken from the test room and will not be seen by the examiner. Answers must be given on the Answer Sheet and must be written in full. Notes are not acceptable as answers.

Task Types

Academic Writing
In Task 1 candidates are asked to describe some information (graph/table/chart/diagram), and to present the description in their own words. Depending on the type of input and the task suggested, candidates are assessed on their ability to: 
» organize, present and possibly compare data
» describe the stages of a process or procedure
» describe an object or event or sequence of events
» explain how something works

In Task 2 candidates are presented with a point of view or
argument or problem. Candidates are assessed on their ability to:
» present the solution to a problem
» present and justify an opinion
» compare and contrast evidence, opinions and implications
» evaluate and challenge ideas, evidence or an argument

The issues raised are of general interest to, suitable for and easily understood by candidates entering undergraduate or postgraduate studies or seeking professional registration.

Marking and Assessment
Each task is assessed independently. The assessment of Task 2 carries more weight in marking than Task 1. Writing scripts are marked by trained and certificated IELTS examiners. IELTS examiners all hold relevant teaching qualifications and are recruited as examiners by the test centers and approved by British Council or IDP:IELTS Australia. Scores are currently reported as whole bands. Detailed performance descriptors have been developed which describe written performance at the 9 IELTS bands. These descriptors are confidential and apply to both the Academic and General Training Modules.

Task 1 scripts are assessed on the following criteria:
» Task Achievement 
» Coherence and Cohesion
» Lexical Resource
» Grammatical Range and Accuracy
 

Task 2 scripts are assessed on the following criteria:
» Task Response
» Coherence and Cohesion
» Lexical Resource
» Grammatical Range and Accuracy

Scripts under the required minimum word limit will be penalized.

Task 1

Task Achievement 
This criterion assesses how appropriately, accurately and relevantly the response fulfils the requirements set out in the task, using the minimum of 150 words. Academic Writing Task 1 is a writing task which has a defined input and a largely predictable output. It is basically an information-transfer task which relates narrowly to the factual content of an input diagram and not to speculated explanations that lie outside the given data.

Coherence and Cohesion
This criterion is concerned with the overall clarity and fluency of the message: how the response organizes and links information, ideas and language. Coherence refers to the linking of ideas through logical sequencing. Cohesion refers to the varied and appropriate use of cohesive devices (for example, logical connectors, pronouns and conjunctions) to assist in making the conceptual and referential relationships between and within sentences clear.

Lexical Resource
This criterion refers to the range of vocabulary the candidate has
used and the accuracy and appropriacy of that use in terms of the specific task.

Grammatical Range and Accuracy
This criterion refers to the range and accurate use of the candidate’s grammatical resource as manifested in the candidate’s writing at the sentence level.

Task 2

Task Response
In both Academic and General Training Modules Task 2 requires the candidates to formulate and develop a position in relation to a given prompt in the form of a question or statement. Ideas should be supported by evidence, and examples may be drawn from the candidates’ own experience. Responses must be at least 250 words in length.

» Sample Questions for Writing Module

4. SPEAKING

Duration and format
The Speaking Module takes between 11 and 14 minutes and consists of an oral interview between the candidate and an examiner. All interviews are recorded. The overall structure of the test is summarized below.

Task Types
There are three main parts. Each part fulfils a specific function in terms of interaction pattern, task input and candidate output. In Part 1 candidates answer general questions about themselves, their homes/families, their jobs/studies, their interests, and a range of familiar topic areas. This part lasts between four and five minutes. In Part 2 the candidate is given a verbal prompt on a card and is asked to talk on a particular topic. The candidate has one minute to prepare before speaking at length, for between one and two minutes. The examiner then asks one or two rounding-off questions. In Part 3 the examiner and candidate engage in a discussion of more abstract issues and concepts which are thematically linked to the topic prompt in Part 2. The discussion lasts between four and five minutes. The Speaking Module assesses how effectively candidates can communicate in English.

Part Nature of interaction Timing

Part 1
Introduction Examiner introduces him/herself and interview and confirms candidate’s identity.  (4/5minutes ) Examiner interviews candidate using verbal questions selected from familiar topic frames.

Part 2
Individual long Examiner asks candidate to speak 3/4 turn for 1/2 minutes on a particular minutes topic based on written input in the (incl. 1 form of a candidate task card and minute content-focused prompts. Examiner preparation asks one or two questions to round- time) off the long turn.

Part 3
Two-way Examiner invites candidate to 4/5 discussion participate in discussion of a more minutes abstract nature, based on verbal questions thematically linked to Part 2 topic. Research has shown that the speech functions which occur regularly in a candidate’s output during the Speaking Test are: 
» Providing personal information Expressing a preference
» Providing non-personal information Comparing
» Expressing opinions Summarizing
» Explaining Conversation repair
» Suggesting Contrasting
» Justifying opinions Narrating and paraphrasing
» Speculating Analyzing

Other speech functions may emerge during the test, but they are
not forced by the test structure.

Marking and assessment
IELTS examiners all hold relevant teaching qualifications and are
recruited as examiners by the test centres and approved by British Council or IDP:IELTS Australia. Detailed performance descriptors have been developed which describe spoken performance at the nine IELTS bands, based on the following criteria. Scores are reported as whole bands only.

Fluency and Coherence refers to the ability to talk with normal levels of continuity, rate and effort and to link ideas and language together to form coherent, connected speech. The key indicators of fluency are speech rate and speech continuity. The key indicators of coherence are logical sequencing of sentences, clear marking of stages in a discussion, narration or argument, and the use of cohesive devices (e.g. connectors, pronouns and conjunctions) within and between sentences.

Lexical Resource refers to the range of vocabulary the candidate can use and the precision with which meanings and attitudes can be expressed. The key indicators are the variety of words used, the adequacy and appropriacy of the words used and the ability to circumlocute (get round a vocabulary gap by using other words) with or without noticeable hesitation.

Grammatical Range and Accuracy refers to the range and the accurate and appropriate use of the candidate’s grammatical resource. The key indicators of grammatical range are the length and complexity of the spoken sentences, the appropriate use of subordinate clauses, and the range of sentence structures, especially to move elements around for information focus. The key indicators of grammatical accuracy are the number of grammatical errors in a given amount of speech and the communicative effect of error.

Pronunciation refers to the ability to produce comprehensible speech to fulfill the speaking test requirements. The key indicators will be the amount of strain caused to the listener, the amount of the speech which is unintelligible and the noticeability of L1 influence.

SCORE PATTERN FOR IELTS

Information on How you get score in IELTS Test

Marking is carried out at the test centre by trained examiners whose work is closely monitored. This ensures that exam results are available without any administrative delay. Results are standardized and usually available within two weeks of the test, and Test Report Forms are sent to the candidates and to the sponsor(s)/receiving institution(s). Test centers are not permitted to give results out over the phone, nor by fax or e-mail.

Test Scores
IELTS provides a profile of a candidate’s ability to use English. Candidates receive scores on a Band Scale from 1 to 9.  A score is reported for each module of the test. The individual module scores are then averaged and rounded to produce an Overall Band Score according to a confidential band score conversion table. Overall Band Scores and Listening and Reading scores are reported in whole and half Bands; Writing and Speaking Band Scores are reported in whole Bands only.

Test Report Form
An example of the Test Report Form is shown on the right. Each module is reported separately as a Band Score, together with an Overall Band Score reported as a whole band or a half band. A descriptive statement giving a summary of the English of a candidate classified at each band level is provided below and is included on the reverse of the Test Report Form. The completed Test Report Form bears a centre stamp, a validation stamp, the candidate’s photograph and the authorized centre representative’s signature, and the authenticity of any Test Report Form can be verified by means of the Test Report Form Verification Service located at https://ielts.ucles.org.uk. British Council, IDP:IELTS Australia and Cambridge ESOL reserve the right to cancel any Test Report Form in the event of any attempt to tamper with or misuse the information contained in it.

IELTS band scores
The completed Test Report Form bears a centre stamp, a validation stamp, the candidate’s photograph and the authorized centre representative’s signature, and the authenticity of any Test Report Form can be verified by means of the Test Report Form Verification Service located at https://ielts.ucles.org.uk. British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia and Cambridge ESOL reserve the right to cancel any Test Report Form in the event of any attempt to tamper with or misuse the information contained in it.

Band Score Conversion Table for IELTS
There are total of 40 questions each in Reading and Listening Modules of IELTS. The band scoring system of the 40 questions are mentioned below:

Number of Correct Answers	Score
20	5.5
25	6
28	6.5
30	7
33	7.5
35	8
38	8.5
40	9

In writing Module total score for Report writing is 3.6 and for Essay writing is 5.4. This score depends on your ability to write a report and an essay.

Similarly, speaking module covers total of 9 score. You will never get the score of speaking in decimal.

 

IELTS Test Results

» 9 Expert user
Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding.

» 8 Very good user
Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well.

» 7 Good user 
Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning.

» 6 Competent user
Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, in appropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations.

» 5 Modest user 
Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field.

» 4 Limited user
Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language.

» 3 Extremely limited user
Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur.

» 2 Intermittent user
No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English.

» 1 Non user
Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words.

» 0 Did not attempt the test
No assessable information provided.

Interpretation of Results
Assessment of performance in IELTS depends on how the candidate's ability in English relates to the language demands of courses of study or training, not on reaching a fixed pass mark. The appropriate level required for a given course of study or training is ultimately something which institutions/departments/ colleges must decide in the light of knowledge of their own courses and their experience of overseas students taking them. The table below gives guidance on acceptable levels of performance for different courses. It should be noted, however, that many diverse variables can affect performance on courses, of which language ability is but one. Receiving organizations are advised to consider both the Overall Band Score and the Bands recorded for each individual module, which indicate the candidate’s particular strengths or weaknesses. Language skills can be matched to particular courses. For example, if a course has a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening comprehension might not be quite as important and a score of, perhaps, 5.5/ 6 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7. However, for a course where there are lots of lectures and spoken instructions a score of 5.5/ 6 in Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7. Receiving organizations should also consider a candidate’s IELTS results in the context of a number of factors, including age and motivation, educational and cultural background, first language and language learning history.

ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR IELTS

Suggestions and Tips that may assist you to take IELTS Test better

Make sure you attend on time
Know the date, time and place of your test and arrive before the scheduled starting time. If you arrive late for any of the papers, report to the supervisor or invigilator. You may not be allowed to take the test.

Bring what you need
Take into the test room only the pens, pencils and erasers which you need for the examination. Correction fluid and highlighters must not be used. Leave anything which you do not need, or which is not allowed, either outside the test room, or as instructed by the supervisor. You may not lend anything to, or borrow anything from, another candidate during the test.

Examination instructions
Listen to the supervisor and do what you are asked to do. Tell the supervisor or invigilator at once if you think you have not been given the right question paper, or if the question paper isincomplete or illegible. Read carefully and follow the instructions printed on the question paper and on the answer sheet. Fill in the details required on the front of your question paper and on your answer sheet before the start of the test.

Advice and assistance during the test
If you are in doubt about what you should do, raise your hand to attract attention.  The invigilator will come to your assistance. You may not ask for, and will not be given, any explanation of the questions. If on the day of the test you feel that your work may be affected by ill health or any other reason, you must inform the invigilator at the time.

Leaving the test room
You may not leave the test room without the permission of the supervisor or invigilator. You can not leave your seat until all papers have been collected and you have been told you can leave. When you leave the examination room you must leave behind the question paper, your answer paper, any paper used for rough work clearly crossed through and any other materials provided for the test. Do not make any noise near the examination room.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

IELTS SAMPLE QUESTIONS

IELTS Practice material that may help you to understand the type of questions of IELTS Test

Here Sample questions of IELTS are given for you to practice as well as to built concept about the IELTS question pattern. This IELTS practice paper will help you to score more in IELTS.

LISTENING

SECTION 2       Questions 11- 20 Questions 11- 15. Choose the correct letters A, B or C. 11. The most important reason for a settlement at the Rocks was A fresh water. B flat rock. C a sea wall. 12 The plague was brought to Sydney by A rat-catchers. B convicts. C sailors. 13 The Harbour Bridge was built A in 10 years with 7 deaths. B in 10 years with 17 deaths. C in 17 years with 10 deaths. 14 The Chinese community arrived in the Rocks in A 1825. B 1844. C 1870. 15 The Chinese shops were mainly A restaurants and laundries. B soap shops and general stores. C general stores and laundries.

 

 

Questions 16 – 20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Number of convicts brought to New South Wales 16 .................................. Date of last convict ship 17 .................................. Age of youngest convict nine Crime of youngest convict 18 .................................. Age of oldest convict 19 .................................. Crime of oldest convict telling lies Most serious crime murder Reason for most crimes 20 ..................................

READING

Questions 1–5 Complete the summary below using words from the box. Write the correct answers in boxes 1–5 on your answer sheet. Example The failure during the late 1970s and early 1980s of an attempt to establish a widespread wind power industry in the United States resulted largely from the 1..... in oil prices during this period. The industry is now experiencing a steady 2..... due to improvements in technology and an increased awareness of the potential in the power of wind. The wind turbines that are now being made, based in part on the 3..... of wide-ranging research in Europe, are easier to manufacture and maintain than their predecessors. This has led wind-turbine makers to be able to standardise and thus minimise 4..... . There has been growing 5..... of the importance of wind power as an energy source. criticism design costs failure operating costs growth scepticism  effects success production costs stability fall recognition decisions decline results

 

 

 

WRITING

WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The chart below shows the different modes of transportation used to travel to and from work in one European city, in 1950, 1970 and 1990. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. Write at least 150 words Modes of transport and year

 

 

WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the following topic. As computers are being used more and more in education, there will soon be no role for the teacher in the classroom. To what extent do you agree or disagree? You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and relevant evidence. Write at least 250 words.

 

SPEAKING

Example Part 2 Describe a teacher who has greatly influenced you in your education.     You should say:           where you met them           what subject they taught           what was special about them and explain why this person influenced you so much. You will have to talk about the topic for 1 to 2 minutes. You have one minute to think about what you are going to say. You can make some notes to help you if you wish.

These are the example question for IELTS test. Real test question will be different, but similar to this one.

 

  TOEFL TEST PREPARATION

WHAT IS TOEFL?
 
The Test of English as a foreign Language (TOEFL) is an examination used to evaluate a nonnative English speaker's proficiency in the English language. Many North American colleges and universities, as well large number of institutions, agencies, and program, ask for official TOEFL score reports. An acceptable score on the TOEFL exam depends on the specific requirements of the particular institution or agency involved.

Why TOEFL?

The main reason behind TOEFL is that you can complete your Education in English successfully. The TOEFL is now only available as a computer-adaptive test. This is how it works: instead of having a pre-determined mixture of easy, medium, and hard questions, the computer will select questions for you based on how well you are doing. The first question will be of medium difficulty; if you get it right, the second question will be selected from a large group of questions that are a little harder; if you get the first question wrong, the second will be a little easier. The result is that the test automatically adjusts to your skill level. But the Reading Comprehension is not computer adaptive. The Tough questions have more credit than easier ones.

TEST MODULES

Sections that you must attend while taking TOEFL Test

The test has four distinct sections: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression, Reading Comprehension and Test of Written English.

SECTION	NO. OF ITEMS	TIME
1. Listening Comprehension
Part A questions over short Conversation	30
Part B questions over longer Conversation	8
Part C  questions over talk	12
Total	50	35 minutes
2. Structure and Written Expression
Identifying correct completion	15
Identifying incorrect words or phrases	25
Total	40	25 minutes
3. Reading Comprehension
Reading passages	50
Total	50	55 minutes
4. Test of Written English*
One essay, 250-300 words	1
Total	1	30 minutes

SCORE PATTERN FOR TOEFL

Information on How you get score in TOEFL Test

Sections 1, 2 and 3

The score you receive on the TOEFL exam is not the percentage of correct answers. Your score is converted to take into account the fact that some tests are more difficult than others. The converted scores correct these differences. Therefore, the converted score is a more accurate reflection of your ability than the correct answer score is.

For general idea of your total score, use the table below to convert your Practice Test scores into a TOEFL score.

Note:  This may not be the exact score you will receive on the TOEFL.
 

Converted Scores
Correct answer scores	Section 1	Section 2	Section 3
48-50	66-68		65-67
45-47	62-65		60-64
42-44	59-61		57-59
39-41	57-58	65-68	55-56
36-38	55-56	61-64	53-54
33-35	53-54	57-60	50-52
30-32	51-52	54-56	48-49
27-29	49-50	51-53	46-47
24-26	47-48	48-50	44-45
21-23	45-46	45-47	41-43
18-20	43-44	42-44	38-40
15-17	41-42	39-41	35-37
12-14	36-40	36-38	31-34
9-11	32-35	30-35	29-30
6-8	30-31	26-29	26-28
3-5	27-29	22-25	24-25
0-2	24-26	20-21	21-23

Scoring of Essay
In TOEFL we do not get immediate results/score we get a range like 203 to 260.Generally you get a range of about 50 to 60 points. If that is the case and if your essay is fair (of the type(4/6) then you would score about 44 points out of about 57.if your range is 57.Don't calculate your writing score as 4/6*57.In fact you get more than that.

 

 

 

 

ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR TOEFL

Suggestions and Tips that may assist you to take TOEFL Test betterh

Preparing for the TOEFL test

1. If you do not have a sound basic knowledge of English, it is best to take English language courses before taking a TOEFL preparation course. TOEFL exam preparation materials are designed to prepare you for the test. They are not designed to teach you English.
2. Begin your TOEFL studies as soon as you decide to take the exam. It will not be useful to try to learn everything the week before the exam date.
3. Study on a regular basis. Thoroughly learning a small amount of information daily is better than insufficiently or inaccurately learning a large amount of information at one sitting.
4. All English practice is helpful. Listening to a movie or radio program in English is good for building your listening comprehension skills. Systematically add new words to your vocabulary. Even though these activities are not directly related to the TOEFL test, they will help you.
5. Work carefully through the exercise in preparation for the TOEFL Test. It is better to concentrate the most effort on your weak areas.

Studying for the TOEFL Test

1. Practice budgeting your time. The TOEFL test is taken under time-limit pressures. Learn to use your time wisely so that you can complete each section.
2. Identify your problem areas. Concentrate on those areas, but review other areas as well.
3. Know your goal. Write to the administration office of the college or university of your choice, and ask for their entrance requirements. They will confirm what TOEFL score is required for admission.
4. Check yourself on the Practice Tests to discover if you usually change correct answers to incorrect answers when unsure of an item. If you do change correct answers to incorrect answers, you will want to stay with your first choice when you take the TOEFL test.

Taking the TOEFL test:

1. The test center staff will tell you where to sit. You can ask for the volume of the cassette to be adjusted at the beginning of the test administration, but remember that it is unlikely that all test-takers will be pleased.
2. Listen to the instructions carefully. The cassette will explain how to complete the personal data sheet and how to mark your answer sheet. It is important that you follow these instructions.
3. If you need to erase, do so thoroughly using a clean eraser.
4. Work quickly through the easy item. Be sure to skip a space on the answer sheet when you skip a difficult item. After you answer the easy items, return to the ones you skipped.
5. Do not underline any words in the test book or make any notes in either the test book or on the answer sheet. A light checkmark on your answer sheet by any item you wish to recheck should be carefully erased before the end of the test.
6. If you finish one of the sections early, go back through only that section to double check your answers. Do not work on any other section of the test. This is not permitted. If you are caught working on the wrong section, your test will be invalidated.
7. Be prepare for changes. Occasionally a TOEFL test has a change in format or more items to answer in a longer period of time.
8. Answer all questions; however, do not waste time on difficult items. If you think one of two answers is correct, choose one and go on. If you don't know, then you should guess. You are not penalized for guessing, and your guess may be correct.
9. If you see that the time is almost finished and you can't read and answer all the remaining  items, choose A, B, C, or D as your guess letter and quickly answer the items with that one letter. You are more likely to get some correct answers if you use one letter than if you use them all.

 

SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR TOEFL

TOEFL Practice material that may help you to understand the type of questions of TOEFL Test

Here Sample questions of TOEFL exam are given for you to practice as well as to built concept about the TOEFL question pattern. This TOEFL sample paper will help you to score more in TOEFL.

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Time - approximately 35 minutes
(including the reading of the directions for each part)

In the Listening Comprehension section of the TOEFL test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

Part A

Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book/Computer and choose/click the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example.

On the recording, you will hear :

(man)      I think I'll have the curtains changed.
(woman)  They are a bit worn.
(narrator) What does the women mean ?

In your book/computer, you will read:

Sample Question
    (A) She thinks every bit of change is important.
    (B) She wants to wear them.
    (C) She thinks they've been worn enough.
    (D) She thinks they're in bad condition.

Part B

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book/computer and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet/computer, find the number of the question and fill/click in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Remember, you should not take notes or write in your book.

Now we will begin Part B with the first conversation.

Sample Question
    (A) A well-known painting.
    (B) A painting that thieves favor.
    (C) A popular painting among the public.
    (D) The most valuable painting in the museum.

Part C

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet/computer, find the number of the question and fill/click in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you will hear :

(narrator) (man)

Listening to a talk about an artificial rock-climbing wall. The largest artificial rock-climbing wall in the United States is located on the campus of Cornell University. This thirty-foot-high climbing wall is made of natural rock that's embedded into concrete blocks, and is sculpted to imitate a variety of elements found on real cliffs. Cornell recently hosted the nation's largest intercollegiate rock-climbing event. Nearly one hundred students from fifteen universities participated in the two-day festival, sponsored by Cornell's Outdoor Education Department.

Now listen to a sample question.

(narrator) Why is Cornell a good place for climbing ?

In your book, you will read :

Sample Question
    (A) The wall is designed with elements of real cliffs.
    (B) The natural rocks are embedded into the cliffs.
    (C) The sculpted concrete blocks are varied.
    (D) The cliffs are challenging.

Now listen to another sample question.

(narrator) What recently happened at Cornell University ?

In your book, you will read :

    (A) A wall was constructed.
    (B) A festival took place.
    (C) An outdoor education course was offered.
    (D) A variety of cliff elements were found.

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION  1 OF THE TOEFL TEST

 

SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Time - 25 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)

Structure

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet/computer, find the number of the question and fill/click in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Sample Question
John Le Carre ............ for his novels concerning espionage.
    (A) famous
    (B) has fame
    (C) is famous
    (D) famed for

Written Expression

Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C, and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet/computer, find the number of the question and fill/click in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Sample Question

The balloonists who remained aloft in the air
A	B		C
radioed the control center
		D

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2 OF THE TOEFL TEST.

 

SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION

Time - 55 minutes
(including the reading of the direction)

Directions: In the Reading Comprehension section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer. (A), (B), (C), or (D) to each question. Then, on your answer sheet/computer, find the number of the question and fill/click in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

Read the following passage :

The Henry Ford Museum was founded in 1929 in Dearborn, Michigan, about 12 miles west of downtown Detroit. This museum has redesigned its display of old cars to show the changes brought about by the automobile. One exhibit which shows the evolution of roadside services contrasts a 1940s diner with a 1960s fast-food restaurant. The "Getting Away From It All" exhibit presents an assortment of recreational vehicles dating from Packard's 1916 camp truck to today's mobile home. Changes in roadside objects such as billboards can be seen along the museum's roadway, where 108 cars are lined up as if traveling. For the car enthusiast, this museum should not be overlooked.

Sample Question 1
What is the passage mainly about ?
    (A) The evolution of roadside services
    (B) Henry Ford's recreational vehicles
    (C) The exhibits at the Henry Ford Museum
    (D) A special exhibition for car enthusiasts

Sample Question 2
The word "evolution" in line 3 is closest in meaning to
    (A) change
    (B) progress
    (C) expansion
    (D) improvement

THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 3 OF THE TOEFL TEST

 

SECTION 4
TEST OF WRITTEN ENGLISH*

Time - 30 minutes
(including the reading of the direction)

Directions: Topics in the following list may appear in your actual test. You should become familiar with this before you take the TOEFL test. Remember that when you take the test you will not have a choice of topics. You must write only on the topic that is assigned to you.

Sample Writing Topics

1. People attend college or university for many different reasons (for example, new experiences, career preparation, increased knowledge). Why do you think people attend college or university? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answers.
    
2. If you could change one important thing about your hometown, what would you change? Use reasons and specific examples to support your answer.
    
3. Neighbors are the people who live near us. In your opinion, what are the qualities of a good neighbors? Use specific details and examples in your answer.
    
4. We all work or will work in our jobs with many different kinds of people. In your opinion, what are some important characteristics of a co-worker (someone you work closely with)? Use reasons and specific examples to explain why these characteristics are important.
    
5. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Universities should give the same amount of money to their students' sports activities as they give to their university libraries. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion.

 

 

Graduate Management Admission Test

WHAT IS GMAT?

The Graduate Management Admission Test (GMAT) is a standardized assessment. Each individual test that is administered contains the same format and areas of content. The test is comprised of three main sections-analytical writing, quantitative reasoning, and verbal reasoning. Each of these areas is measured using different types of questions that have specific instructions for each.

Questions are chosen from a very large pool of test questions categorized by content and difficulty. Only one question at a time is presented to you on the screen. The first question is always of middle difficulty. The selection of each question thereafter is determined by your responses to all previous questions. In other words, the adaptive test adjusts to your ability level-you will get few questions that are too easy or too difficult for you.

You must answer each question and may not return to or change your answer to any previous question. If you answer a question incorrectly by mistake-or correctly by lucky guess-you answer to subsequent questions will lead you back to questions that are at the appropriate level of difficulty for you.

GMAT TEST MODULES

Sections that you must attend while taking GMAT Test

Analytical Writing Assessment
The GMAT exam with the Analytical Writing Assessment, consists of two essays topics selected by the computer.30 min are allowed to respond to each topic. One task is to analyze an issue; the other is to analyze an argument.

Quantative
This section tests elementary mathematical skills. This section contains 37 multiple-choice questions of either two question types, Data Sufficiency or Problem Solving. You are allowed a maximum of 75 minutes to complete the section.

Verbal
This section contains 41 multiple-choice questions on Reading Comprehension, Critical Reasoning, and Sentence Correction. The duration is 75 min.

Sections	Questions	Timing	Score
Analytical Writing Assessment
Analysis of an Issue	1 topic	30 minutes	0 to 6
Analysis of an Argument	1 topic	30 minutes
Optional Rest Break		5 minutes
GMAT Quantitative
Problem Solving(*24 Questions) Data Sufficiency(*13 Questions)	37 questions	75 minutes	0 to 60
Optional Rest Break		5 minutes
GMAT Verbal
Reading Comprehension(*13 Questions)  Critical Reasoning(*14 Questions) Sentence Correction(*15 Questions)	41 questions	75 minutes	0 to 60
GMAT Total		200 to 800

SCORE PATTERN FOR GMAT

Information on How you get score in GMAT Test

The test has three distinct sections : Analytical Writing Ability (AWA), Quantitative, and Verbal. The Quantitative section has two types of questions, Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency, mingled throughout the section. The Verbal Section has three types : Sentence Correction, Critical Reasoning, and Reading Comprehension; here too, the questions of each type appear in no set sequence. There are a total of 78 questions, 37 in Quantitative and 41 in Verbal. These have to be done in 75 minutes each.

The following table gives out the format of the GMAT-CAT :

	Questions	Timing
Computer Tutorial	NA	NA
Analytical Writing     Analysis of an Issue     Analysis of an Argument	1 Topic 1 Topic	30 min. 30 min.
Optional Rest Break	NA	5 min.
Quantitative (Problem Solving & Data Sufficiency)	37	75 min.
Optional Rest Break	NA	5 min.
Verbal (Reading Comprehension, Critical Reasoning, & Sentence Correction)	41	75 min.
	78 + 2 Essays	4 hrs. (approx.)

Analytical Writing Assessment
The analytical writing section requires you to write - or rather type - two short essays in thirty minutes each. The first is the Analysis of an Issue, in which you need to analyze the issue presented and explain your views on it. The second essay is Analysis of an Argument, in which a given argument has to be critically analyzed and evaluated.

For both the essays, the emphasis is on the "Analytical" part, and not on the "Writing" part. This implies that a concise essay with well-reasoned points written in simple English will be looked upon more favourably than an essay which falls short on the analytical aspects even though it is high on writing skills.

A five-minute break follows the two essays. The computer gives you the option to take this break, or to move directly to the subsequent section. Even if you finish the essays before the stipulated sixty minutes, the break will still be of five minutes. It is advisable to utilize this break by gearing yourself up for the tougher sections that follow.

Quantitative Section
The 37 questions in this section comprise two kinds of questions : Problem Solving (PS) and Data Sufficiency (DS). The two kinds do not have a definite break-up, usually there are around 20 PS and 17 DS questions. The section tests you on a level of Math that is comparable to the level of Class 10 exams, with questions on Number Systems, Percentages, Fractions & Decimals, Algebra (including Quadratic Equations), Geometry (including Basic Coordinate Geometry), Ratio & Proportion, Area & Volume of 2-D and 3-D figures, and Probability. This list is not exhaustive; questions from beyond these topics may also be asked.

While the Problem Solving questions require you to solve a mathematical problem directly and choose the right answer, the Data Sufficiency is of a trickier variety. Each problem comprises a question followed by two statements, which may or may not lead to the answer to the given question. This is what you need to ascertain - whether the given statements can be used to answer the question or not, and if so, whether the statements can be used independently or in conjunction. Each of the five answer options present the five possibilities that arise in this case, and you have to apply the basic principles of mathematics with a strong dose of logic to get these right.

Verbal Section
The verbal section in GMAT exam requires the basic skills of correct English coupled with reasoning and analysis. The 41 questions, to be attempted in 75 minutes, consist of three types : Sentence Correction (SC), Critical Reasoning (CR), and Reading Comprehension (RC). The three types are intermingled, with no fixed number for each type. The break-up of questions among SC, CR, and RC could be 14-14-13 or 15-13-13, or any such combination.

The scoring pattern in GMAT CAT
The GMAT results comprise four different scores : a total score (which is the combined verbal and quantitative scores), a separate Verbal score, a separate Quantitative score, and an Analytical Writing score. The total score is reported on a scale from 200 to 800. The Verbal and Quantitative Scores are reported on a scale of 0 to 60. For the AWA score, the scale is from 0 to 6. Note that your AWA performance is not reflected in your total GMAT score (on 800). You get to know your total, verbal, and quantitative score immediately after taking the test. Official GMAT score reports, which include the AWA scores, are mailed approximately two weeks after you take the test and take another ten days or so to reach your address.

In addition to these scores, the score report also contains percents (%) below. These "% below" indicate the percentage of examinees who scored below you based on the scores of the entire GMAT testing population for the most recent three-year period. These percentages are important in considering how an applicant for admission to a particular management school compares with everyone in the specified period, with all other applicants to the same school, and with students already enrolled at the school.

ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR GMAT

Suggestions and Tips that may assist you to take GMAT Test better

INFORMATION ON GMAT

Who administers GMAT?
The GMAT is developed and administered by the US-based "Educational Testing Service" (ETS) under the direction of the Graduate Management Admission Council (GMAC), a non-profit organization of graduate business schools worldwide.  ETS sets the questions, conducts the test, and sends each examinee the score report. For the conduct of the test, ETS has appointed Testing Agencies in various countries, which act as franchisee for ETS.

When is GMAT held?
All-round-the-year. Unlike other exams, you can choose your own date and time for taking the GMAT! The test is administered in the above cities five-days-a-week (Monday through Friday), twice a  day. September to December is the high season for GMAT, so in case you intend to take the test during this period, you need to register very early (say 90 days in advance) to get a date of your choice. Otherwise, registering at least 15 days in advance is mandatory. The test lasts roughly four hours, and most centres offer two slots : 9 A.M. and 2 P.M.

Eligibility and Fees
For GMAT there are no restrictions based on age or qualifications. The test scores are valid for five years, i.e., most universities accept scores up to five years old.Test fees for GMAT may vary according to the country in which you take the test. In India, this fee is US $200, payable at the time of registration.  The draft should be made out in favour of "ETS - GMAT" payable in the U.S. bank. Alternately, the payment can also be made through a credit card which has global acceptance.

TIPS FOR GMAT

Make sure you attend on time

1. Know the date, time and place of your test and arrive before the scheduled starting time.
2. If you arrive late for any of the papers, report to the supervisor or invigilator. You may not be allowed to take the test.

Bring what you need

1. Take into the test room only the pens, pencils and erasers which you need for the examination.
2. Correction fluid and highlighters must not be used.
3. Leave anything which you do not need, or which is not allowed, either outside the test room, or as instructed by the supervisor.
4. You may not lend anything to, or borrow anything from, another candidate during the test.

Examination instructions

1. Listen to the supervisor and do what you are asked to do.
2. Tell the supervisor or invigilator at once if you think you have not been given the right question paper, or if the question paper is incomplete or illegible.
3. Read carefully and follow the instructions printed on the question paper and on the answer sheet.
4. Fill in the details required on the front of your question paper and on your answer sheet before the start of the test.

Advice and assistance during the test

1. If you are in doubt about what you should do, raise your hand to attract attention.  The invigilator will come to your assistance.
2. You may not ask for, and will not be given, any explanation of the questions.
3. If on the day of the test you feel that your work may be affected by ill health or any other reason, you must inform the invigilator at the time.

Leaving the test room

1. You may not leave the test room without the permission of the supervisor or invigilator.
2. You can not leave your seat until all papers have been collected and you have been told you can leave.
3. When you leave the examination room you must leave behind the question paper, your answer paper, any paper used for rough work clearly crossed through and any other materials provided for the test.
4. Do not make any noise near the examination room.

GMAT SAMPLE QUESTIONS

GMAT Practice material that may help you to understand the type of questions of GMAT Test

Here Sample questions of GMAT are given to practice GMAT papers as well as to built concept about the GMAT question pattern. This questions will help you to score more in GMAT exam.

SECTION I

READING COMPREHENSION

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: This part contains three reading passages. You are to read each one carefully. When answering the questions, you will be allowed to refer to the passages. The questions are based on what is stated or implied in each passage.

This passage was written before the fall of the Soviet Union.

Passage 1:

With Friedrich Engels, Karl Marx in 1848 in 1848 published the Communist Manifesto, calling upon the masses to rise and throw off their economic chains. His mature theories of society were later elaborated in his large and abstruse work Das Kapital. Starting as a non-violent revolutionist, he ended life as a major social theorist more or less sympathetic with violent revolution, if such became necessary in order to change the social system which he believed to be frankly predatory upon the masses.

On the theoretical side, Marx set up the doctrine of surplus value as the chief element in capitalistic exploitation. According to this theory, the ruling classes no longer employed military force primarily as a means to plundering the people. Instead, they used their control over employment and working conditions under the bourgeois capitalistic system for this purpose, paying only a bare subsistence wage to the worker while they appropriated all surplus values in the productive process. He further taught that the strategic disadvantage of the worker in industry prevented him from obtaining a fairer share of the earnings by bargaining methods and drove him to revolutionary procedures as a means to establishing his economic and social rights. This revolution might be peacefully consummated by parliamentary procedures if the people prepared themselves for political action by mastering the materialistic interpretation of history and by organizing politically for the final event. It was his belief that the aggressions of the capitalist class would eventually destroy the middle class and take over all their sources of income by a process of capitalistic absorption of industry - a process which has failed to occur in most countries.

With minor exceptions, Marx's social philosophy is now generally accepted by left-wing labor movements in many countries, but rejected by centrist labor groups, especially those in the United States. In Russia and other Eastern European countries, however, Socialist leaders adopted the methods of violent revolution because of the opposition of the ruling classes. Yet, many now hold that the present Communist regime in Russia and her satellite countries is no longer a proletarian movement based on Marxist social and political theory, but a camouflaged imperialistic effort to dominate the world in the interest of a new ruling class.

It is important, however, that those who wish to approach Marx as a teacher should not be "buffaloed" by his philosophic approach. They are very likely to in these days, because those most interested in propagating the ideas of Marx, the Russian Bolsheviks, have swallowed down his Hegelian Philosophy along with his science of revolutionary engineering, and they look upon us irrelevant peoples, who presume to mediate social and even revolutionary problems without making our indifference to them. They are wrong in scorning our distaste for having practical programs presented in the form of systems of philosophy. In that we simply represent a more progressive intellectual culture than that in which Marx received his education - a culture farther emerged from the dominance of religious attitudes.

1. According to the passage, the chief element in Marx's analysis of capitalist exploitation was the doctrine of

(A) just wages.
(B) the price system.
(C) surplus value.
(D) predatory production.
(E) subsistence work.

2. Das Kapital differs from the Communist Manifesto in that it

(A) was written with the help of Friedrich Engels.
(B) retreated from Marx's earlier revolutionary stance.
(C) expressed a more fully developed form of Marxist theory.
(D) denounced the predatory nature of the capitalist system.
(E) expressed sympathy for the plight of the middle class.

3. According to the passage, Marx ended his life
4. a believer is nonviolent revolution.
   II. accepting violent revolution.
   III. a major social theorist.

(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and III only

(D) II and III only (E) Neither I, II, nor III

4. The author suggests that the then-present Communist regime in Russia may best be categorized as a (n)

(A) proletarian movement. (B) social government. (C) imperialistic state.

(D) revolutionary government. (E) social democracy.

5. Marx's social philosophy is now generally accepted by

(A) centrist labor groups (B) most labor unions. (C) left-wing labor unions.

(D) only those in Communist countries. (E) only those in Russia.

6. It can be concluded that the author of the passage is

(A) sympathetic to Marx's ideas.
(B) unsympathetic to Marx's ideas.
(C) uncritical of Marx's interpretation of history.
(D) a believer in Hegelian philosophy
(E) a Leninist-Marxist.

7. Which of the following classes did Marx believe should control the economy?

(A) the working class (B) the upper class (C) the middle class

(D) the lower class (E) the capitalist class

8. According to Marx, a social and economic revolution could take place through
       I. parliamentary procedures.
       II. political action.
       III. violent revolution.

(A) I only (B) III only (C) I or II only

(D) II or III only (E) I, II, or III

Passages 2 and 3 with question from No. 9 to 25 are similar to the question of passage 1.

SECTION II

PROBLEM SOLVING

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: Solve each of the following problems; then indicate the correct answer on the answer sheet. [On the actual test you will be permitted to use any space available on the examination paper for scratch work.]

NOTE: A figure that appears with a problem is drawn as accurately as possible so as to provide information that may help in answering the question. Numbers in this test are real numbers.

1. A college has raised 75% of the amount it needs for a new building by receiving an average donation of $60 from the people already solicited. The people already solicited represent 60% of the people the college will ask for donations. If the college is to raise exactly the amount needed for the new building, how much must the remaining people donate per person?

(A) $25 (B) $30 (C) $40

(D) $50 (E) $60

2. If 2x+y=10 and x=3, what is x-y?

(A) -4 (B) -1 (C) 0

(D) 1 (E) 7

3. If a worker can pack 1/6 of a carton of canned food in 15 minutes and there are 40 workers in a factory, how many cartons should be packed in the factory in 1²/₃hours?

(A) 33 (B) 40 2/9 (C) 43 4/9

(D) 44 4/9 (E) 45 2/3

4. Which of the following inequalities is the solution to the inequality 7x - 5 < 2x + 18?

(A) x < 13/5 (B) x > 23/9 (C) x < 23/9

(D) x > 23/5 (E) x < 23/5

5. A truck driver must complete a 180-mile trip in 4 hours. If he averages 50 miles an hour for the first three hours of his trip, how fast must he travel in the final hour?

(A) 30 mph (B) 35 mph (C) 40 mph

(D) 45 mph (E) 50 mph

6. If a triangle has base B and the altitude of the triangle is twice the base, then the area of the triangle is

(A) 1/2 AB (B) AB (C) 1/2 B2

(D) B2 (E) 2B2

7. If the product of two numbers is 10 and the sum of the two numbers is 7, then the larger of the two numbers is

(A) -2 (B) 2 (C) 3

(D) 4 1/4 (E) 5

8. Oranges cost $Xa bag for the first 100 bags a store buys from a wholesaler. All bags bought in addition to the first 100 get a discount of 10 %. How much does it cost to buy 150 bags of oranges from the wholesaler?

(A) $100 (B) $140x (C) $145x

(D) $150x (E) $100x + $50

9. If the lengths of the two sides of a right triangle adjacent to the right angle are 8 and 15 respectively, then the length of the side opposite the right angle is

(A) √258 (B) 15.8 (C) 16

(D) 17 (E) 17.9

10. It costs x¢ each to print the first 600 copies of a newspaper. It costs (x-y/10)¢ for every copy after the first 600. How much does it cost to print 1,500 copies of the newspaper?

(A) 1500x¢ (B) 150y¢ (C) (1,500x-90y)¢

(D) $(150x-9y) (E) $15x

11. Which of the following sets of values for w, x, y, and z respectively are possible if ABCD is a parallelogram?
12. 50, 130, 50, 130
    II. 60, 110, 70, 120
    III. 60, 150, 50, 150

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

12. John weights twice as much as Marcia. Marcia's weight is 60% of Bob's weight. Dave weights 50% of Lee's weight. Lee weighs 190% of John's weight. Which of these 5 persons weights the least?

(A) Bob (B) Dave (C) John

(D) Lee (E) Marcia

13. The sum of 5 consecutive integers is 35. How many of the five consecutive integers are prime numbers?

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2

(D) 3 (E) 4

14. Circle 1 has the same radius as circle 2. A is the center of circle 1, and B is the center of circle 2. Circle 1 and circle 2 meet only at C. ACB is a straight line segment of length 10. What is the length of DB if DA is perpendicular to AC?

(A) 10 (B) 5√5 (C) 11	(D) 10√2 (E) 15

15. The assessed value of a house is $72,000. The assessed value is 60% of the market value of the house. If taxes are $3 for every $1,000 of the market value of the house, how much are the taxes on the house?

(A) $216 (B) $360 (C) $1,386

(D) $2,160 (E) $3,600

16. If the operation * is defined by *a = a2-2, then *(*5) is

(A) 23 (B) 527 (C) 529

(D) 621 (E) 623

17. If y/x = 1/3 and x + 2y = 10, then x is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4

(D) 5 (E) 6

18. What is the area of the parallelogramABCD? A = (1,-1), B= (2,2), C= (5,2), and D=(4,-1).

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 41/2

(D) 9 (E) 10

19. The area of a rectangular field is 1,000 square yards. If the length of the field is y yards, then how many yards is the perimeter of the field?

(A) y+1,000/y (B) 2y+1,000 (C) 1,000

(D) 2y+1,000/y (E) 2y+2,000/y

20. The figure ABCDEFGH is a cube. AB = 10. What is the length of the line segment AF?

(A) 10 (B) 10√2 (C) 10√3

(D) 20 (E) 10√5

If there is still tim

e remaining, you may review the questions in the section only. In the actual CAT GMAT,  you cannot, you cannot return to a question after you have confirmed you answer.

SECTION III

CRITICAL REASONING

Time: 30 minutes

Direction: For each question, choose the best answer among the listed alternative.

1. Myra: The number of freeway accidents this year in the state of North Carolina, where the speed limit on free ways was lowered to fifty miles an hour two years ago, is clear evidence that speed restrictions, rigorously enforced, make drivers more aware of the dangers of going too fast.

Lewis: Wrong. A close look at the records shows that the number of freeway accidents has been falling ever since the formation of a new special traffic division, which happened two years before the lowering of the speed limit.

Which of the following best describes the weak point in Myra's statement upon which Lewis focuses?

(A) The decrease in freeway accidents may be a temporary phenomenon.
(B) The evidence Myra cites comes only from one source - the state of North Carolina.
(C) Myra's claim leaves open the possibility that the cause she cities came after the effect she attributes to it.
(D) No exact statistics for freeway accidents are given by Myra.
(E) No mention is made of deaths caused on roads other than freeways.

2. Imagine you are a prisoner. Two prison guards, Jake and Jim, defend two doors. One door leads to death, the other to your life and freedom.

Each of the guards either always tells the truth or always lies. Both may be truth-tellers, both may be liars, or one may be a liar and the other a truth-teller.

You are allowed to choose from the following questions to discover which door leads to your release.

1. Is your comrade the same as you?
   2. Are you guarding the door to life and liberty?
   3. Is your comrade lying?
   4. Are you telling the truth?

Which of the following combinations of questions will lead to your certain freedom?

(A) 3 to Jake, 4 to Jim, 2 to Jake.
(B) 3 to Jim, 2 to Jake, 1 to Jim.
(C) 2 to Jim, 2 to Jake, 3 to Jake.
(D) 4 to Jim, 1 to Jim, 2 to Jake.
(E) 1 to Jim, 1 to Jake, 2 to Jim.

3. The Pistons have more points than the Nuggets. The Bullets have less points than the Lakers. The Nuggets and the Suns have the same number of points. The Sun have more points than the Bullets.

If the above is true, which of the following must also be true?

(A) The Nuggets have fewer points than the Bullets.
(B) The Pistons have more points than the Bullets.
(C) The Nuggets have fewer points than the Lakers
(D) The Lakers have more points than the Pistons.
(E) The Lakers have more points than the Suns.

4. A train leaves New Jersey for New York every minute, all trains traveling on the same line. At the same time, and leaving at the same one-minute intervals, trains make the journey in the opposite direction (New York to New Jersey) traveling all the time on rails parallel to the New York - bound trains. All the trains complete the 60-mile journey in exactly one hour. No other trains use these tracks. Given the above facts, which of the following conclusions cannot be made?

(A) A train leaving New Jersey at 3 P.M. after the latter has completed one quarter of its journey.
(B) The 3:30 P.M. out of New York will reach its destination before the train due to arrive in New York at 6 P.M. has left its home station.
(C) The train that leaves New York at 4 P.M. will pass 60 trains during its journey.
(D) The average speed of the train that leaves New York at 5 P.M. is 60 miles per hour.
(E) None of the above.

5. The states of New York, Ohio, Pennsylvania, and California provide extensive free higher education to their residents. These states are representative of different geographic areas of the United States. There is little reason why most states cannot provide the same service to their residents.

Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?

(A) Free education is not guaranteed by the constitution.
(B) New York, Ohio, Pennsylvania, and California have more qualified high school graduates than other states.
(C) Most other states do not have the tax base that New York, Ohio, Pennsylvania, and California have.
(D) Other states do not have as may high school graduates.
(E) Quality education cannot be free; it must be paid for.

6. Professor Archibald had the task of giving grades (ranging from A-D in descending value) to his 100 students, based upon the marks they received in three examinations in which the passing mark was 50%. He is instructed to follow the following criteria:

1. All students who scored between 30 and 100% in any two examinations could receive an A grade.
2. Students that came in the top decile overall were to be awarded an A.
3. Notwithstanding I and II, if any student failed a paper, the highest he or she could get was a B.
4. The top 20 students in the whole year, when the overall exam percentages were averaged, could receive an A.

Given the above criteria, which of the following, in the absence of further information, would definitely not be permissible?

(A) A Brown, who got 95% in Chemistry and 92% in Biology, received a B grade.
(B) B. White, who was first in Physics and got 96% in History, received a B grade.
(C) C. Green failed English but, because he ranked ninth overall out of the 100 students, he was awarded an A grade.
(D) D. Black was given an A after he came in twentieth out of the 100 students and failed to get above 90% in any of the three examinations.
(E) E. Gray failed his Math paper, but came in top in his other two tests and was awarded a B.

The question format from 7-20 are same as the question formats of 1-6.

SECTION IV

DATA SUFFICIENCY

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: Each of the following problems has a question and two statements which are labeled (1) and (2). Use the data given in (1) and (2) together with other available information (such as the number of hours in a day, the definition of clockwise, mathematical facts, etc.) to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Then fill in space

(A) if you can get the answer from (1) alone but not from (2) alone;
(B) if you can get the answer from (2) alone but not from (1) alone;
(C) if you can get the answer from (1) and (2) together, although neither statement by itself suffices;
(D) if statement (1) alone suffices and statement (2) alone suffices;
(E) if you cannot get the answer form statements (1) and (2) together, but need even more data.

All numbers used in this section are real numbers. A figure given for a problem is intended to provide information consistent with that in the question, but not necessarily with the additional information contained in the statements.

1. How many degrees Celsius is 100° Fahrenheit?

1. Degrees Celsius = 5/9 (degrees Fahrenheit) - 32
2. Degrees Fahrenheit = 9/5 (degrees Celsius) + 32

2. What is the area of the shaded part of the circle? O is the center of the circle.

1. The radius of the circle is 4.
2. x is 60.

3. 3. What was Mr. Kliman's income in 1970?

1. His total income for 1968, 1969, and 1970 was $ 41,000.
2. He made 20% more in 1969 than he did in 1968.

4. If I and I' are straight lines, find y.

1. x = 100
2. z = 80

5. Fifty students have signed up for at least one of the courses German I and English I. How many of the 50 students are taking German I but not English I?

1. 16 students are taking German I and English I.
2. The number of students taking English I but not German I is the same as the number taking German I but not English I.

6. The XYZ Corporation has 7,000 employees. What is the average yearly wage of an employee of the XYZ Corporation?

1.  4,000 of the employees are executives.
2. The total amount the company pays in wages each year is $ 77,000,000.

7. Is X > Y?

1. (X + Y)2 > 0
2. X is positive

8. How long will it take to travel from A to B? It takes 4 hours to travel from A to B and back to A.

1. It takes 25% more time to travel from A to B than it does to travel from B to A.
2. C is midway between A and B, and it takes 2 hours to travel from A to C and back to A.

9. Did ABC Company make a profit in 1980?

1. ABC Company made a profit in 1979.
2. ABC Company made a profit in 1981.

10. Did the price of a bushel of soybeans increase during every week of 1980?

1. The price of a bushel of soybeans was $2 on January 1, 1980.
2. The price of a bushel of soybeans was $4 on January 1, 1981.

The question format from 11-25 are same as the question formats of 1-10.

SECTION V

SENTENCE CORRECTION

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: This test consists of a number of sentences, in each of which some part or the whole is underlined. Each sentence is followed by five alternative versions of the underlined portion. Select the alternative you consider both most correct and most effective according to the requirements of standard written English. Answer A is the same as the original version; if you think the original version is the best, select answer A.

In considering the answer choices, be attentive to matters of grammar, diction, and syntax, as well as clarity, precision, and fluency. Do not select an answer that alters the meaning of the original sentence.

1. If we cooperate together by dividing up the work, we shall be able to finish it quickly.

(A) If we cooperate together by dividing up the work
(B) If we cooperate by dividing up the work
(C) If we cooperate together by dividing the work
(D) If we cooperate dividing up the work
(E) If we cooperate together by dividing the work

2. I think he approves my choice despite the fact I differ with him, granted the generation gap between us.

(A) I think he approves my choice despite the fact I differ with him, granted the generation gap between us.
(B) Granted the generation gap between us, I think he approves my choice despite the fact I differ with him.
(C) Despite the fact I differ with him, I think he approves my choice, granted the generation gap between us.
(D) Despite the fact I differ with him, I think, granted the generation gap between us, he approves my choice.
(E) Granted the generation gap between us, despite the fact that I differ with him, I think he approves my choice.

3. The vacationersenjoyed swimming in the pool, bathing in the ocean, and, particularly, to snorkelnear the reef.

(A) enjoyed swimming in the pool, bathing in the ocean, and, particularly, to snorkel
(B) enjoyed swimming in the pool, to bathe in the ocean, and particularly, to snorkel
(C) enjoyed swimming in the pool, to bathe in the ocean, and particularly snorkeling
(D) enjoyed swimming in the pool, bathing in the ocean, and, particularly, snorkeling
(E) enjoyed to swim in the pool, to bathe in the ocean, and, particularly, to snorkel

4. Crossing the street, a car almost struck us.

(A) Crossing the street, a car almost struck us.
(B) A car almost struck us, crossing the street.
(C) As we crossed the street, a car almost struck us.
(D) A car, crossing the street, almost struck us.
(E) Having crossed the street, a car almost struck us.

5. The theme of this novel is how money doesn't make you happy.

(A) The theme of this novel is how money doesn't make you happy.
(B) The theme of this novel is that money doesn't make you happy.
(C) In this novel, its theme is how money doesn't make you happy.
(D) In this novel, that money doesn't make you happy is the theme.
(E) In this novel, you are not made happy by money is the theme.

6. If some Americanslook at where they are going, it can be seen that our goal is money.

(A) look at where they are going, it can be seen that our goal
(B) look back at where they are going, they see that their goal
(C) look ahead to where they are going, it can be seen that their goal
(D) look at where they are going, they can see our goal
(E) look ahead to where they are going, they can see their goal

The question format from 7-25 are same as the question formats of 1-6.

SECTION VI

PROBLEM SOLVING

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: Solve each of the following problems; then indicate the correct answer on the answer sheet. [On the actual test you will be permitted to use scratch paper for your calculation.]

NOTE: A figure that appears with a problem is drawn as accurately as possible so as to provide information that may help in answering the question. Numbers in this test are real numbers.

1. If the side of a square increase by 40%, then the area of the square increased by

(A) 16%
(B) 40%
(C) 96%
(D) 116%
(E) 140%

2. If 28 cans of soda cost $ 21.00, then 7 cans of soda should cost

(A) $ 5.25
(B) $ 5.50
(C) $ 6.40
(D) $ 7.00
(E) $ 10.50

3. If the product of 3 consecutive integers is 210, then the sum of the two smaller integers is

(A) 5
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 18

4. If X and Y are negative numbers, which of the following statements is (are) always true?
5. X - Y is negative
   II. -X is positive
   III. (-X) (-Y) is positive

(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
(E) I and III only

5. ABCD has area equal to 28. BC is parallel to AD. BA is perpendicular to AD. If BC is 6 and AD is 8, then what is CD?

(A) 2√2
(B) 2V3
(C) 4
(D) 2√5
(E) 6

6. A manufacturer prints books at a cost of $x each for the first thousand copies printed. The second thousand copies printed cost $ .9x each. If it costs $ 3,264 to print 1,400 copies of a book, then x is

(A) 1.63
(B) 2.10
(C) 2.33
(D) 2.40
(E) 2.59

The question format from 7-20 are same as the question formats of 1-6.

SECTION VII

CRITICAL REASONING

Time: 30 minutes

Directions: For each question, choose the best answer among the listed alternatives.

1. A politician wrote the following: "I realize there are some short-comings to the questionnaire method. However, since I send a copy of the questionnaire to every home in the district, I believe the results are quite representative...I think the numbers received are so large that it is quite accurate even though the survey is not done scientifically."

The writer of the above statement makes which of the following assumptions:

(A) Most people who received the questionnaire have replied.
(B) Most people in the district live in homes.
(C)  The questionnaire method of data collection is unscientific.
(D) The large number of replies means that a high proportion of those sampled have replied.
(E) A large, absolute number of replies is synonymous with accuracy.

2. In 1970, Transylvania earned $ 1 million in tourist revenue. By 1990, tourist revenue doubled, and in 2000 it reached the sum of $ 4 million.

Each of the following, if true, may explain the trend in tourist revenue except:

(A) The number of tourists has increased from 1970 to 2000.
(B) Average expenditure per tourist has increased.
(C) Average stay per tourist has increased.
(D) The number of total hotel rooms has increased.
(E) The average price of tourist services has increased.

3. Donors are almost never offended by being asked for too much (in fact, they are usually flattered). And if you ask for too much, your donor can always suggest a smaller amount. On the other hand, donors are frequently offended by being asked for too little. A common reaction is "So that's all they think I'm worth."

The above statement assumes that:

(A) Donors are usually never asked enough.
(B) A good fund-raiser will value the worth of the donor.
(C) It is worth the gamble to ask for large donations.
(D) Fund-raisers often think that donors are incapable of giving much.
(E) Donors are seldom offended by fund-raisers.

4. One major obligation of the social psychologist is to provide his own discipline, the other social sciences, and interested laymen with conceptual tools that will increase the range and the reliability of their understanding of social phenomena. Beyond that, responsible government officials are today turning more frequently to the social scientist for insights into the nature and solution of the problems with which they are confronted.

The above argument assumes that:

(A) Social psychologists must have a strong background in other sciences as well as their own.
(B) A study of social psychology should be a part of the curriculum of government officials.
(C) The social scientist has an obligation to provide the means by which social phenomena are little understood by those outside the field of social psychology.
(E) A good social psychologist is obligated principally by the need to solve interdisciplinary problems.

5. Now problems require new solutions. And new problems arise with new populations and new technologies. The solutions of these problems require new institutions as well as new political, economic, and social mechanisms. Yet institutions and political and economic arrangements grow slowly, new institutions should be given every chance of success.

The writer of the above makes which of the following assumptions:

(A) New institutions are needed because old institutions are inefficient.
(B) New institutions are created in order to solve existing problems
(C) As old institutions are phased out, new ones take their place.
(D) If there were no growth, old institutions would die more slowly.
(E) Socio-technological change requires new forms of institutional arrangements.

6. About 40 percent of American husbands think it is a good idea for wives with school-age children to work outside the home. Only one out of ten German household heads approves of mothers working of school-age children live at home. Every second American wife and every third German wife with school-age children has a job outside her home.

If the above is correct, which of the following must be true?
(A) More German than American wives work outside the home.
(B) Employment opportunities for American wives are greater than for German husbands.
(C) German husbands have more conservative attitudes than American husbands.
(D) German husbands would seem to be less satisfied about working wives who have school-age children than American husbands.
(E) German women have fewer children than American women.

The question format from 7-20 are same as the question formats of 1-6.

GRE INTRODUCTION

The Graduate Record Examination is a test taken to estimate verbal, mathematical, and analytical skills in students. The Graduate Record Examination is simply known as GRE. This test helps universities or colleges to measure the ability of applicants for advanced education. The students who intend to study business don’t require attending GRE exam. More than two thousand universities in the USA require GRE score from each applicant before permitting them to admit in their university.

The GRE examines the skills on reasoning and comprehension. There is no any minimum qualification indicated for taking GRE. However, the candidate must be a graduated student or about to complete graduation within six coming months.

Generally, the students who want to study Post Graduate level or PhD program in American universities requires to pass the GRE Test. Princeton in New Jersey conducts this exam which is a provide Educational Testing Services.

GRE TEST MODULES

Sections that you must attend while taking GRE Test

The GRE test has three distinct sections : Quantitative, Analytical, and Verbal. The Quantitative section has Problem Solving questions, which test your mathematical skills and concepts of roughly the high-school level. The Verbal Section has four types of questions : Antonyms, Analogies, Reading Comprehension, and Sentence Completion. The questions of each type appear in no set sequence. Questions in the Analytical Section test your logical and structural reasoning ability. There are a total of 93 questions, 28 in Quantitative, 35 in Analytical, and 30 in Verbal.

In addition to the objective-type questions test, the GRE exam has introduced the Writing Assessment as a separate test. This test measures critical thinking and analytical writing skills, consisting of two analytical writing tasks : (1) "Present your perspective on an issue", and (2) "Analyze an Argument". Whether you will actually need to take this test will depend on whether the graduate schools you are planning to apply to require or recommend this test.

There is a one-minute break between each test section. Midway through the testing session, an on-screen message will inform you of the opportunity to take a 10-minute break. Section timing will not stop if you take an unscheduled break.

Section	Questions	Duration
Verbal	30	30 minutes
Analytical	35	60
Quantitative	28	45 minutes
Experimental	Varies	Varies

 

 

Verbal Section
The verbal section in GRE requires a good vocabulary level, the basic skills of correct English coupled with reasoning and analysis. The 30 questions, to be attempted in 30 minutes, consist of four types : Antonyms, Analogies, Sentence Completion, and Reading Comprehension. The four types are intermingled, with no fixed number for each type.

Analytical Section
This section tests pure analytical and logical reasoning skills, and is akin to the standard "IQ tests". It has a total of 35 questions, to be attempted in 60 minutes. The questions are based on the interpretation and analysis of some data presented - which may be quantitative data or verbal information.

Quantitative Section
The section tests you on a level of Maths that is comparable to Class 10 mathematics, with questions on Number Systems, Percentages, Fractions & Decimals, Algebra (including Quadratic Equations), Geometry (including Basic Coordinate Geometry), Ratio & Proportion, Area & Volume of 2-D and 3-D figures, and Probability. This list is not exhaustive; questions from beyond these topics may also be asked.

The section has 28 questions to be completed in 45 minutes.

SCORE PATTERN FOR GRE

Information on How you get score in GRE Test

The GRE results comprise four different scores : a total score, and separate scores for Verbal, Quantitative, and Analytical sections. The total score is reported out of 2400 and the sectional scores are out of 800.

In addition to these scores, the score report also contains percents (%) below. These "% below" indicate the percentage of examinees who scored below you based on the scores of the entire GRE testing population for the most recent three-year period. These percentages are important in considering how an applicant for admission to a particular management school compares with everyone in the specified period, with all other applicants to the same school, and with students already enrolled at the school.

ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR GRE

Suggestions and Tips that may assist you to take GRE Test better

GRE Tips

1. First 15 Questions of each section are most Important!
2. Most of People will find Quantitative section most easy but be careful, avoid making silly mistakes. Note you wont get extra score if you finish this section before time!
3. Questions on Probability, Permutations , combinations , mean, mode, standard deviation are common. Be patient in Quantitative section.
4. Verbal section is Toughest for people not having English as native language best solution is to learn as many words as possible.
5. Answer all questions in each section .There is negative marking for questions unanswered. So at last 2 minutes just guess all remaining questions.
6. Don't panic even if your score is low!
7. Be prepared for 4 Universities to apply online.

Information on GRE Exam

Salient Features
First, the test has no question paper or answer sheets, nor does it have the same set of questions for all the examinees. Further, it does not give you the option of not answering a question (unless, of course, you run out of time at the end). GRE is an entirely Computer based test. The test is scored out of 2400 (in multiples of 10), and most scores fall in the range of 1800-2000.

The GRE is only one of several parameters which the graduate schools look at to determine the selection of an applicant. A high score alone does not guarantee admission.  But the test can be looked upon as the first major hurdle to be cleared in the process of getting admission into a Graduate school of your choice.

Who administers GRE?
The GRE is developed and administered by the US-based "Educational Testing Service" (ETS) under the direction of the Graduate Record Examination Board , a non-profit organization of graduate business schools worldwide. This implies that ETS sets the questions, conducts the test, and sends each examinee the score report. For the conduct of the test, ETS has appointed Testing Agencies in various countries, which act as franchisee for ETS.

When is GRE held? 
All-round-the-year. Therefore you can choose your own date and time. The test is administered in the above cities five-days-a-week (Monday through Friday), twice-a-day. September to December is the high season for GRE, so in case you intend to take the test during this period, you need to register very early.  to get a date of your choice. Otherwise, registering at least 15 days in advance is mandatory. The test lasts roughly three-and-a-half hours, and most centres offer two slots : 9 A.M. and 2 P.M.

Eligibility and Fees
Anyone and everyone is eligible for taking the GRE.There are no restrictions based on age or qualifications. The test scores are valid for five years. Most universities accept scores up to five years old.

Test fees for GRE may vary according to the country in which you take the test. In Nepal, this fee is US $125, payable at the time of registration. The fee has to be paid through a US Dollar denominated draft, made out in favour of "ETS - GRE" payable in the U.S. Such a draft is usually available with the Main Branches of most banks (which have a foreign exchange counter) in most of the big cities for a nominal charge (around Rs. 200). Alternately, the payment can also be made through a credit card which has global acceptance.

 

 

What is Computer - Adaptive Test?
In such a test, the computer screen displays one question at a time, which is chosen from a very large pool of questions categorized by content and toughness. The first question is always of a medium difficulty, and each subsequent question is determined by your responses to all the previous questions. In other words, the CAT adjusts itself to your ability level.

Each question in the GRE CAT has five answer options, and you are required to select one of these five as the correct answer by clicking on it. A subsequent question is displayed on the screen only after you have answered the previous question. You cannot also go back to a previously answered question to change your answer.

Reporting the Score  
ETS has the provision of reporting your GRE scores to a maximum of four universities of your choice, the cost of which is built into the fee you pay. You have to indicate the four universities where you wish a copy of your GRE score to be sent after you get to know your scores. For reporting to each additional university, the ETS charges you $13, payable by an international credit card or a dollar denominated draft.

Retaking GRE
Sometimes it is necessary to take the GRE more than once, like when a management school asks you for more recent scores than what you have. However, unless your scores seem unusually low compared to your performance in the practice tests, or if you have not been able to perform well because of a sudden illness or lar exceptional circumstances, it’s advisable not to  repeat the test. Given the nature of the test, it is unlikely that your scores can substantially improve. In fact, your scores may decrease.

GRE SAMPLE QUESTIONS

GRE Practice material that may help you to understand the type of questions of GRE Test

Here Sample questions of GRE are given for you to practice as well as to built concept about the GRE question pattern. This questions will help you to score more in GRE exam.

Section 1-Verbal Ability
30 Questions-30 Minutes

Antonym Directions: In each of the following antonym questions, a work printed in capital letters precedes five lettered words or phrases. From these five lettered words or phrases, pick the one most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.

1. PRODIGAL:

(A) nomad (B) sycophant (C) gifted child

(D) economical person (E) antagonist

2. ARTIFICE:

(A) edifice (B) sincerity (C) prejudice

(D) creativity (E) affirmation

Sentence Completion Directions: Each of the following sentence completion questions contains one or two blanks. These blanks signify that word or set or works has been left out. Below each sentence are five words or sets of words. For each blank, pick the word or set of words that best reflects the sentence's overall meaning.

3. The earth is a planet bathed in light; it is therefore ----- that many of the living organisms that have evolved on the earth have ----- the biologically advantageous capacity to trap light energy.

(A) anomalous...engendered
(B) unsurprising...developed
(C) predictable...forfeited
(D) problematic...exhibited
(E) expectable...relinquished

4. Relatively few politicians willingly forsake center stage, although a touch of --- on their parts now and again might well increase their popularity with the voting public.

(A) garrulity (B) misanthropy (C) self-effacement

(D) self-dramatization (E) self-doubt

Analogy Directions: Each of the following analogy questions presents a related pair of words linked by a colon. Five lettered pairs of words follow the linked pair. Choose the lettered pair of words whose relationship is most like the relationship expressed in the original linked pair.

5. CIRCUITOUS : ROUTE ::

(A) problematic : solution (B) devious : argument? (C) gullible : incredulous

(D) enigmatic : dumbfounded (E) deferential : sycophantic

Reading Comprehension Directions: Each of the following reading comprehension questions is based on the content of the following passage. Read the passage and then determine the best answer choice for each question. Base your choice on what this passage states directly or implies, not on any information you may have gained elsewhere.

Jame's first novels used conventional narrative techniques: explicit characterization, action which related events in distinctly phased sequences, settings firmly outlined and specifically described. But this method gradually have way to a subtler, more deliberate, more diffuse style of accumulation of minutely discriminated details whose total significance the reader can grasp only by constant attention and sensitive inference. His later novels play down scenes of abrupt and prominent action, and do not so much offer a succession of sharp shocks as slow piecemeal additions of perception. The curtain is not suddenly drawn back from shrouded things, but is slowly moved away.

Such a technique is suited to Jame's essential subject, which is not human action itself but the states of mind which produce and are produced by human actions and interactions. James was less interested in what characters do, than in the moral and psychological antecedents, realizations, and consequences which attend their doings. This is why he more often speaks of "cases" than of actions. His stories, therefore, grow more and more lengthy while the actions they relate grow simpler and less visible; not because they are crammed with adventitious and secondary events, digressive relief, or supernumerary characters, as overstuffed novels of action are; but because he presents in such exhaustive detail every nuance of his situation. Commonly the interest of a novel is in the variety and excitement of visible actions building up to a climatic event which will settle the outward destinies of characters with storybook promise of permanence. A James novel, however, possesses its characteristic interest in carrying the reader through a rich analysis of the mental adjustments of characters to the realities of their personal situations as they are slowly revealed to them through exploration and chance discovery.

7. The passage supplies information for answering for answering which of the following questions?

(A) Did James originated information for answering which of the following questions?

(B) Is conventional narrative techniques strictly chronological in recounting action?

(C) Can novels lacking overtly dramatic incident sustain the reader's interest?

(D) Were Jame's later novels more acceptable to the general public than his earlier ones?

(E) Is James unique in his predilection for exploring psychological nuances of character?

8. According to the passage, Jame's later novels differ from his earlier ones in their

(A) preoccupation with specifically described settings
(B) ever-increasing concision and tautness of plot
(C) levels of moral and psychological complexity
(D) development of rising action to a climax
(E) subordination of psychological exploration to dramatic effect

9. The author's attitude toward the novel of action appears to be one of

(A) pointed indignation (B) detached neutrality (C) sharp derision

(D) strong partisanship (E) mild disapprobation

Antonyms

10. EQUIVOCATE:

(A) yield (B) penury (C) condescend

(D) pledge (E) denounce

11. OPULENCE:

(A) transience (B) penury (C) solitude

(D) generosity (E) transparency

Analogies

12. EPHEMERAL : PERMANENCE ::

(A) erratic : predictability (B) immaculate : cleanliness (C) commendable : reputation

(D) spurious : emulation (E) mandatory : obedience

13. NONPLUSSED : BAFFLEMENT ::

(A) discomfited : embarrassment (B) parsimonious : extravagance (C) disgruntled : contentment

(D) despicable : contempt (E) surly : harassment

14. OGLE : OBSERVE ::

(A) haggle : outbid (B) clamor : dispute (C) discern : perceive?

(D) flaunt : display (E) glare : glower

Sentence Completion

15. It may be useful to think of character in fiction as a function of two ---- impulses: the impulse to individualize and the impulse to ----.

(A) analogous...humanize
(B) disparate...aggrandize
(C) divergent...typify
(D) comparable...delineate
(E) related...moralize

16. There are any number of theories to explain these events and, since even the experts disagree, it is ----  the rest of us in our role as responsible scholars to ---- dogmatic statements.

(A) paradoxical for...abstain from
(B) arrogant of...compensate from
(C) incumbent on...refrain from
(D) opportune for...quarrel over
(E) appropriate for...issue forth

Reading Comprehension

According to the theory of plate tectonics, the lithosphere (earth's relatively hard and solid outer layer consisting of the crust and part of the underlying mantle) is divided into a few dozen plates that vary in size and shape; in general, these plates move in relation to another. They move away from one another at a mid-ocean ridge, a long chain of sub-oceanic mountains that forms a boundary between plates. At a mid-ocean ridge, new lithosphere material in the form of hot magma pushes up from the earth's interior. the injection of this new lithospheric material from below causes the phenomenon known as sea-floor spreading.

    Given that the earth is not expanding in size to any appreciable degree, how can "new" lithosphere be created at a mid-ocean ridge? For new lithosphere material must be destroyed somewhere else. This destruction takes place at a boundary between plates called a subduction zone. At a subduction takes place at a boundary between plates called a subduction zone. At a subduction zone, one plate is pushed down under another into the red-hot mantle, where over a span of millions of years it is absorbed into the mantle.

    In the early 1960's, well before scientists had formulated the theory of plate tectonics, Princeton University professor Harry H. Hess proposed the concept of sea-floor spreading. Hess's original hypothesis described the creation and spread of ocean floor by means of the upwelling and cooling of magma from the earth's interior. Hess, however, did not mention rigid lithospheric plates. The subsequent discovery that the oceanic crust contains evidence of  periodic reversals of the earth's magnetic field helped confirm Hess' hypotheses. According to the explanation formulated by Princeton's F.J. Vine and D.H. Matthews, whenever magma wells up under a mid-ocean ridge, the ferromagnetic minerals within the magma become magnetized in the direction of the geomagnetic field. As the magma cools and hardens into dock, the direction and the polarity of the geometric field are recorded in the magnetized volcanic rock. Thus, when reversals of the earth's magnetic field occur, as they do at intervals of from 10,000 to around a million years, they produce a series of magnetic stripes paralleling the axis of the rift. Thus, the oceanic crust is live a magnetic tape recording, but instead of preserving sounds or visuals images, it preserves the history of earth's geomagnetic field. the boundaries between stripes reflect reversals of the magnetic field; these reversals can be dated independently. Given this information, geologists can deduce the rate of sea-floor spreading from the width of the stripes. (Geologists, however, have yet to solve the mystery of exactly how the earth's magnetic fields comes to reverse itself periodically.)

17. According to the passage, a mid-ocean ridge differs from a subduction zone in that

(A) it marks the boundary line between neighboring plates
(B) only the former is located on the ocean floor
(C) it is a site for the emergence of new lithospheric material
(D) the former periodically distrupts the earth's geomagnetic field
(E) it is involved with lithospheric destruction rather than lithospheric creation

18. It can be inferred from the passage that a new lithospheric material in injection from below

(A) the plates become immobilized in a kind of gridlock
(B) it is incorporated into an underwater mountain ridge
(C) the earth's total mass is altered
(D) it reverses its magnetic polarity
(E) the immediately adjacent plates sink

19. According to the passage, lithospheric material at the site of a subduction zone

(A) rises and it polarized
(B) sinks and is reincorporated
(C) slides and is injected
(D) spreads and is absorbed
(E) diverges and is consumed

Antonyms

20. HONE:

(A) broaden (B) twist (C) dull

(D) weld (E) break

21. PHLEGMATIC:

(A) dogmatic (B) ardent (C) haphazard

(D) self-assured (E) abstracted

22. BANALITY:

(A) tentative interpretation (B) concise summation (C) accurate delineation

(D) laundatory remark (E) novel expression

Analogies

23. THIRST : DRIVE ::

(A) inebriety : excess (B) success : ambition (C) indifference : passion

(D) taste : gusto (E) smell : sense

24. SKULDUGGERY : SWINDLER ::

(A) surgery : quack (B) quandary : craven (C) chicanery : trickster

(D) forgery : speculator (E) cutlery : butcher

Sentence Completion

25. According to one optimistic hypothesis, the dense concentraion of entrepreneurs and services in the cities would incubate new functions, ---- them, and finally export them to other areas, and so the cities, forever breeding fresh ideas, would ---- themselves repeatedly.

(A) immunize...perpetuate (B) isolate...revitalize (C) foster...deplete

(D) spawn...imitate (E) nurture...renew

26. Man is a ---- animal, and much more so in his mind than in his body: he may like to go alone for a walk, but he hates to stand alone in his ----.

(A) gregarious...opinions (B) conceited...vanity (C) singular...uniqueness

(D) solitary...thoughts (E) nomadic...footsteps

Antonyms

27. ERUDITE:

(A) unhealthy (B) ignorant (C) impolite

(D) indifferent (E) imprecise

28. EFFRONTERY:

(A) obscurity (B) indolence (C) separation

(D) diffidence (E) fluctuation

Reading Comprehension

The stability that had marked the Iroquois Confederacy's generally pro-British position was shattered with the overthrow of James II in 1688, the colonial uprisings that followed in Massachusetts, New York, and Maryland, and the commencement of King William's War against Louis XIV of France. The increasing French threat to English hegemony in the interior of North America was signalized by French-led or French-inspired attacks on the Iroquois and on outlying colonial settlements in New York and New England. The high point of the Iroquois response was the spectacular raid of August 5,1689, in which the Iroquois virtually wiped out the French Village of Lachine, just outside Montreal. A counterraid by the French on the English village of Schenectady in March, 1690, instilled an appropriate measure of fear among the English and their Iroquois allies.

The Iroquois position at the end of the war, which was formalized by treaties made during the summer of 1701 with the British and the French, and which was maintained throughout most of the eighteenth century, was one of "aggressive neutrality" between the two competing European powers. Under the new system the Iroquois initiated a peace policy toward the "far Indians," tightened their control over the nearby tribes, and induced both English and French to support their neutrality toward the European powers by appropriate gifts and concessions.

By holding the balance of power in the sparsely settled borderlands between English and French settlements, and by their willingness to use their power against one or the other nation if not appropriately treated, the Iroquois played the game of European power politics with effectiveness. The system broke down, however, after the French became convinced that the Iroquois were compromising the system in favor of the English and launched a full-scale attempt to establish French physical and juridical presence in the Ohio Valley, the heart of the borderlands long claimed by the Iroquois. As a consequence of the ensuing Great War for Empire, in which Iroquois neutrality was dissolve and European influence moved closer, the play-off system lost its efficacy and a system of direct bargaining supplanted it.

29. The author's primary purpose in this passage is to

(A) denounce the imperialistic policies of the French
(B) disprove the charges of barbarism made against the Indian nations
(C) expose the French government's exploitation of the Iroquois balance of power
(D) describe and assess the effect of European military power on the policy of an Indian nation
(E) show the inability of the Iroquois to engage in European-style diplomacy

30. With which of the following statements would the author be LEAST likely to agree?

(A) The Iroquois were able to respond effectively to French acts of aggression.
(B) James II's removal from the throne caused dissension to break out among the colonies.
(C) The French begrudged the British their alleged high standing among the Iroquois.
(D) Iroquois negotiations involved playing one side against the other.
(E) The Iroquois ceased to hold the balance of power early in the eighteenth century.

Section 2 - Qualitative Ability
28 Questions - 45 Minutes

Quantitative Comparison Directions: In the following type of question, two quantities appear, one in Column A and one in Column B. You must compare them. The correct answer to the question is

A if the quantity in Column A is greater B if the quantity in Column B is greater C if the two quantities are equal D if it is impossible to determine which quantity is greater

Notes: Sometimes information about one or both of the quantities is centered above the two columns. If the same symbol appears in both columns, it represents the same thing each time.

	Column A	Column B
1.	a > 0
	a4a5	(a3)2
2.	a+b-c	0
3.	The number of primes between 30 and 40	The number of primes between 40 and 50

Discrete Quantitative and Data Interpretation Directions: In the following questions, choose the best answer from the five choices listed.

5. 
   In the figure at the right, what is the value of a + b + c?

(A) 210 (B) 220 (C) 240

(D) 270 (E) 280

6. Of the 200 seniors at Monroe High School, exactly 40 are in the band, 60 are in the orchestra, and 10 are in both. How many students are in neither the band nor the orchestra?

(A) 80 (B) 90 (C) 100

(D) 110 (E) 150

7. Twenty children were sharing equally the cost of a present for their teacher. When 4 of the children decided not to contribute, each of the other children had to pay $ 1.50 more. How much did the present cost, in dollars?

(A) 50 (B) 80 (C) 100

(D) 120 (E) 150

Quantitative Comparison

	Column A	Column B
8.	a > 0
	1020	2010
	There are 250 people lined up outside a theater. Jack is the 25th person from the front, and Jill is the 125th person from the front.
9.	The number of people between Jack and Jill	100

Data Interpretation

10. What is the value ofn if 3¹⁰ X 27² = 9² X 3ⁿ?

(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12

(D) 15 (E) 30

Quanitative Comparison

	Column A	Column B
11.	The perimeter of ΔAOB	17
	a-b/c-a = 1
12.	The average (arithmetic mean) of b and c	a
13.	The area of a square whose sides are 10	The area of a square whose diagonals are 15

Data Interpretation:

Questions 14-15 refer to the graph below.

Popular Vote Cast for President
by Major Political Parties

14. In which presidential election between 1972 to 1996 inclusive, was the percent of votes received by the winning candidate the lowest?

(A) 1976 (B) 1980 (C) 1988

(D) 1992 (E) 1996

15. In which year between 1972 and 1996 inclusive were the greatest number of votes cast for president?

(A) 1980 (B) 1984 (C) 1988

(D) 1992 (E) 1996

Discrete Quantitative

16. In 1990, twice as many boys as girls at Adams High School earned varsity letters. From 1990 to 2000 the number of girls earning varsity letters increased by 25% while the number of boys earning varsity letters decreased by 25%. What was the ratio in 2000 of the number of girls to the number of boys who earned varsity letters?

(A) 5/3 (B) 6/5 (C) 1/1

(D) 5/6 (E) 3/5

Quantitative comparison

	Column A	Column B
17.	The area of the entire white region	4 times the area of blue region

 

	Column A	Column B
	In 1980, Elaine was 8 times as old as Adam, and Judy was 3 times as old as Adam. Elaine is 20 years older than Judy.
18.	Adam's age in 1988	12

 

	Column A	Column B
19.	The area of the shaded region	The area of the striped region

Discrete Quantitative

21. A square and an equilateral triangle each have sides of length 5. What is the ratio of the area of the square to the area of the triangel?

(A) 4/3 (B) 16/9 (C) √3/4

(D) 4√3/3 (E) 16√3/9

22. If x + 2y = a and x - 2y = b, which of the following expressions is equal to xy?

(A) ab
(B) a + b/2
(C) a - b/2
(D) a2 - b2/4
(E) a2 - b2/8

23. 
    In the figure above, the area of square ABCD is 100, the area of triangle DEC is 10, and EC. What is the distance from A to E?

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) √146

(D) 13 (E) √244

Section 3 - Analytical Writing
Time - 75 Minutes

2 Writing Tasks

Task 1 : Issue Exploration - 45 Minutes

Directions: In 45 minutes, choose one of the two following topics and compose an essay on that topic. You may not write on any other topic. Write your essay on separate sheets of paper.

Each topic is presented in a one - to two - sentence quotation commenting on an issue of general concern. Your essay may support, refute, or qualify the views expressed in the quotation. Whatever you write, however, must be relevant to the issue under discussion, and you must support your viewpoint with reasons and examples derived from your studies and/or experience.

Before you choose a topic, consider which would give you greater scope for writing an effective, well-argued essay.

Your essay will be judged on the basis of your skill in the following areas.

• Analysis of the quotation's implications
• Organization and articulation of your ideas
• Use of relevant examples and arguments to support your case
• Handling of the mechanics of standard written English

Once you have decided which topic you prefer, click on the appropriate icon to confirm your choice. Do not be hasty confirming your choice of topic. Once you have clicked on a topic, you will not be able to switch to the alternate choice.

Topic 1

"We venerate loyalty---to our schools, employers, institutions, friends---as a virtue, Loyalty, however, can be at least as detrimental an influence as it can be a beneficial one."

Topic 2

"A person who does not thoroughly comprehend the technical side of a craft is incapable of judging it."

Task 2: Argument Analysis - 30 Minutes

Directions: In 30 minutes, prepare a critical analysis of an argument expressed in a short paragraph. You may not offer an analysis of any other argument. Write your essay on separate sheets of paper.

As you critique the argument, think about the author's underlying assumptions. Ask yourself whether any of them are questionable. Also evaluate any evidence any evidence the author brings up. Ask yourself whether it actually supports the author's conclusion.

In your analysis, you may suggest additional kinds of evidence to reinforce the author's argument. You may also suggest methods to refute the argument, or additional data that might be useful to you as you assess the soundness of the argument. You may not, however, present your personal views on the topic. Your job is to analyze the elements of an argument, not to support of contradict that argument.

Faculty members from various institutions will judge your essay, assessing it on the basis of your skill in the following areas:

• Identification and assessment of the argument's main elements
• Organization and articulation of your thoughts
• Use of relevant examples and arguments to support your case
• Handling of the mechanics of standard written English

The following appeared in an editorial in the Bayside Sentinel. "Bayside citizens need to consider raising local taxes if they want to see improvements in the Bayside School District. Test scores, graduation and college admission rates, and a number of other indicators have long made it clear that the Bayside School District is doing a poor job education our youth. Our schools look run down. Windows are broken, bathrooms unusable, and classroom equipment hopelessly out of date. Yet just across the Bay, in New Harbor, school facilities are up-to-date and in good condition. The difference is money; New Harbor spends twenty-seven percent more per student than Bayside does, and test scores and other indicators of student performance are stronger in New Harbor as well.

 

Verbal Section

The verbal section in GRE requires a good vocabulary level, the basic skills of correct English coupled with reasoning and analysis. The 30 questions, to be attempted in 30 minutes, consist of four types : Antonyms, Analogies, Sentence Completion, and Reading Comprehension. The four types are intermingled, with no fixed number for each type.

Analytical Section

This section tests pure analytical and logical reasoning skills, and is akin to the standard "IQ tests". It has a total of 35 questions, to be attempted in 60 minutes. The questions are based on the interpretation and analysis of some data presented - which may be quantitative data or verbal information.

Quantitative Section

The section tests you on a level of Maths that is comparable to Class 10 mathematics, with questions on Number Systems, Percentages, Fractions & Decimals, Algebra (including Quadratic Equations), Geometry (including Basic Coordinate Geometry), Ratio & Proportion, Area & Volume of 2-D and 3-D figures, and Probability. This list is not exhaustive; questions from beyond these topics may also be asked.

The section has 28 questions to be completed in 45 minutes.

SAT TEST PREPARATION

WHAT IS SAT ?

The Scholastic Aptitude Test is a Standardized test that measures verbal, mathematical and analytical skills. It is intended to help the graduate schools (of all fields other than business) assess the potential of applicants for advanced study. The Board is a national nonprofit membership association whose mission is to prepare, inspire, and connect students to college and opportunity, with a commitment to excellence and equity. The Board is composed of more than 4,200 schools, colleges, universities, and other educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves more than three million students and their parents, 22,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges through major programs and services in college admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching and learning. A board of trustees composed of 31 members, seven of whom are ex officio, governs the College Board. The SAT is given seven times a year at thousands of testing centers throughout the world.

Most students take the SAT during their junior or senior year of high school. About half the students who take the SAT do so twice in the spring of their junior year and fall of their senior year. Today, nearly 80 percent of four-year colleges and universities use test scores in admissions decisions. Research has repeatedly demonstrated that the best way to predict freshman year grade point average is to use a combination of SAT scores and the high school grade point average.

 

SAT TEST MODULES

Sections that you must attend while taking SAT Test

Duration: 3 hours, 45 minutes

There are 3 sections Critical Reading, Math and Writing sections (200-800 points/section)

The SAT measures general scholastic aptitude in three areas: critical reading, quantitative reasoning, and writing.

The Critical Reading Section(formerly known as the verbal section) has two question types: sentence completions and reading comprehension questions. Within the reading comprehension section, there are both long reading passages and short (one paragraph) reading passage questions. All questions are multiple choice with five answer choices.

The Quantitative Section has two types of questions: multiple choice and "grid-ins," which have an answer grid that allows you to enter any four-digit number. These questions cover four main topic areas: arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and mathematical logic.

The Writing Section of the SAT exam consists of two parts: a student-written essay section, in which you'll be asked to write a short essay (25 minutes), and multiple choice questions (35 minutes) that will measure your ability to identify grammatical errors and improve sentences or paragraphs.

ELPT

The English Language Proficiency Test (ELPT) is going to be offered on November 2, 2002, and January 25, 2003 at designated test centers, and on April 22, 2003 at participating schools in the U.S., U.S. territories, and Puerto Rico. If you wish to take the ELPT in April, tell your counselor or English as a Second Language (ESL) teacher by February 14, 2003.

Intended Testing Group
Students whose best language is not English; who attend U.S. high schools, or who have studied in an international school where courses are taught in English; have completed two to four years of English language instruction in an English as a Second Language program or in English enrichment courses; and/or students who speak a language other than English at home or work.

Purpose
To assess both your understanding of spoken and written standard American English and how well you will function in a classroom where English is spoken

Format

1. 84 multiple-choice questions that concentrate on practical and academic use of English
2. Test time is one hour (about 30 minutes listening and 30 minutes reading)
3. Two listening sections: one testing your ability to identify an appropriate continuation of a short conversation, and another requiring you to answer questions based on short dialogues, announcements, and narratives
4. One reading comprehension section that tests your ability to read prose passages from published materials as well as everyday materials such as advertisements, timetables, signs, and forms

Section of Test Approximate Percentage of Test
Listening   17
Reading    50
Listening   33

Scores Required
Total scores on the 901-to-999 scale; listening and reading sub scores on a 1-to-50 scale as well as reading and listening proficiency ratings.

SCORE PATTERN FOR SAT

Information on How you get score in SAT Test

When the grading of SAT that you have taken is done, a raw score will be calculated for each part (Critical Reading, Writing, and Mathematics). For each of the 67 critical reading questions, you will receive 1 points for a correct; for each incorrect answer, 1/4 of a point is deducted. For example, if you were to answer 58 of the critical reading questions, getting 50 right and 8 wrong, your raw score would be calculated as follows: 50-8(1/4) = 50-2 = 48. Notice that points were neither added nor deducted for the 10 questions you omitted. This raw score is then converted to a scaled score between 200 (the lowest possible grade) and 800 (the highest possible grade).

The same procedure is followed on the writing skills and mathematics parts, except that no deduction is made for incorrect gridlines. Because a deduction is made for incorrect answers, you may think that you should only answer a question if you are sure of the answer. That is a very poor strategy. On average, you will break even by guessing wildly on questions that you don't know how to do or haven't even read, and will come out ahead by guessing anytime that you eliminate one or more of the choices.

For SAT exam, when you receive your score report online or in the mail, you will get only your scaled scores - one for the critical reading part of the exam, one for the writing part, and one for the mathematics part. On each part, the median grade is about 500, meaning that about 50 percent of the students taking the test score below 500, and 50 percent score above 500. On each part, earning only half of the number of points possible will result in a grade above 500. You certainly don't have to answer all, or even most, of the questions to earn a good score. In fact, unless you are in the top 5 percent of all students, and think that you might score over 700 on one of the parts, you shouldn't even attempt to finish the test. Working slowly and carefully will undoubtedly earn you higher scores.

ADVICE AND INFORMATION FOR SAT

Suggestions and Tips that may assist you to take SAT Test better

SAT - BRIEF INFORMATION

The College Entrance Examination Board, now commonly known as the College Board, administered the first Scholastic Aptitude Test in June 1926 to 8,040 mostly male and probably all-white candidates. They were applying to private colleges, mainly in the Northeast. In the 2000-2001 test year, more than 2.1 million young men and women took the SAT I: Reasoning Test as part of the admissions process for more than 1,000 private and public institutions of higher education, 80 percent of the national total.

Much of the 1926 SAT exam resembled its modern counterpart. It included analogies, reading comprehension, and arithmetic. But the time limits differed. The verbal section of the 1926 version had 245 verbal questions, to be answered in 82 minutes or 20 seconds per item. The current verbal section, in contrast, gives students 75 minutes to answer 78 questions, or 58 seconds per item. The time limit difference between the 1926 and present math sections are also notable.

The format of the SAT has also changed. The verbal and math sections were not scored separately until l931. This was done to allow college admissions staff to weigh students' scores according to the college's curriculum. Mathematics questions were eliminated and then reappeared during the first two decades of the test.
. 
National SAT scores rose to their highest levels in 1963. In the 1970s, the College Board conducted 38 studies and assembled a panel to learn the causes of the subsequent steady decline in scores. The Board's conclusions noted the changing composition of the college-bound population, lower school standards, and changing mores that affected students' motivation to learn.

In recent decades, the College Board modified the SAT to account for test-takers' different cultural and educational backgrounds, and to improve the reliability of test performance measures. In 1994, antonyms were eliminated, the verbal section contained a greater emphasis on reading, non-multiple-choice questions appeared on the math section, and calculators were permitted.

Despite the great changes in American society since the SAT was first administered, the College Board's aims held: to provide educational institutions with an honest measure of American students' abilities. To remain true to the College Board's founding principles, the SAT has been adapted to reflect the needs of students and the colleges they are preparing to enter. This is part of a larger procession of change toward greater access and equity in the American educational system.

 

SAT Preparation Tips
SAT is a standardized test required for admission to undergraduate programs in USA. 

To perform well on SAT, you need to work on a set of skills that the College Board does not mention in any of the materials that they send you: You need to be a good test taker.  That means recognizing that standardized tests like the SAT and ACT are different from the tests you are probably used to taking in high school over the years, for which you may often spend more time on difficult questions than you do on easy ones.

In the world of standardized tests, you are rewarded only for answering the most questions correctly, regardless of their difficulty.  You may lose points by spending more time on hard questions than one easy ones, or for methodically going through the test one question at a time.  Knowing how the tests work and how they are organized can save you a lot of anxiety (and a lot of points) when you sit down on test day.  Here are some tips:

Make sure you know the directions by heart
The instructions on the exam are always exactly the same.  Learn them beforehand.  That way you won’t waste time reading them on test day.

Keep your answer sheet clean
It sounds simple, but it is extremely important not to make mistakes filling out the answer grid.  When time is short, it is easy to get confused going back and forth.  But if you do, your answers will be wrong.  It is smarter to grid the answers in-groups rather than one question at a time.  This is how it works: Circle your answer to each question in the booklet as you figure it out.  Then transfer those answers to the answer grid in groups of five or more (until you get close to the end of a section, when you should grid in answers one by one- it will help you avoid running out of time.

Don't jump to conclusions
To separate the high-scoring students from the rest of the pack, the SAT test makers purposely include tempting wrong answer choices as traps.  The surest way to avoid falling for traps is to predict the answer before you look at the answer choices.  For example, if you are answering an SAT sentence Completion, don’t just jump into the answer choices to see which one fits.  Instead, read the sentence, predict the missing word, and then scan the answer choices to see which one matches.

Don't answer all the questions in order
High scorers know that most SAT questions are arranged in order of difficulty.  They use this to their advantage by answering easy questions first, circling problems they don’t have answers to, and moving on to the easier questions in the next section.  Later, when they have answered all the easier questions, they come back if they have time.

Guess answers
Test makers often talk about the guessing penalty on the SAT.   This is a misnomer.  It is really a wrong-answer penalty.  Guess right, and you gain.  Guess wrong and you lose points.  The fact is, if you can eliminate one or more answers as definitely wrong, you will turn the odds in your favor and actually come out ahead by guessing.  With practice in advance of the test day, you will learn that it is often east to eliminate several of the multiple-choice answers.

Time yourself & maintain speed
The ACT and SAT give you a lot of questions in a short period of time.   To get through a whole section, you can’t spend too much time on any one question.  Keep moving through the test at a good speed.  Skip harder questions, and  return to them if you have time.

Look for quick points if you are running out of time
Some questions can be answered quickly.  For instance, some reading questions will ask you to identify the meaning of a particular word in the passage.   These can often be answered correctly, at the last minute, even if you haven’t read the passage pertaining to it.

 

Best books for SAT preparation
Most of the books and CD's available in the market are designed for US students. They focus more on problems faced by American students rather than International students. Some of the popular books are:

10 Real SAT's (US $17.95)

The book from the makers of SAT. It is the only book which offers real SAT questions and practice tests. 

One-on-One with the SAT (Compact Disc) (US $29.95)

A practice tutorial and test series from College Board for students who are more comfortable with the computer. 

The salient features are:

1. The Board is a national nonprofit membership association whose mission is to prepare, inspire, and connect students to college and opportunity, with a commitment to excellence and equity.
2. The Board is composed of more than 4,200 schools, colleges, universities, and other educational organizations. Each year, the College Board serves more than three million students and their parents, 22,000 high schools, and 3,500 colleges through major programs and services in college admissions, guidance, assessment, financial aid, enrollment, and teaching and learning. A board of trustees composed of 31 members, seven of whom are ex officio, governs the College Board.
3. The SAT is given seven times a year at thousands of testing centers throughout the world.
4. Most students take the SAT during their junior or senior year of high school.
5. About half the students who take the SAT do so twice--in the spring of their junior year and fall of their senior year.
6. Today, nearly 80 percent of four-year colleges and universities use test scores in admissions decisions.
7. Research has repeatedly demonstrated that the best way to predict freshman year grade point average is to use a combination of SAT scores and the high school grade point average.

Some SAT questions are easy and some are hard, but most questions are of medium difficulty. On average, students answer 50 to 60 percent of questions correctly.

Even though each new SAT is constructed to meet precise content and statistical specifications, some minor differences may occur between different editions of the test. For example, some forms might be slightly more difficult or easier than others and the ability level of test-takers varies at different administrations. However, the equating portion of the SAT equalizes these differences and ensures the continuing comparability of all SAT scores.

Preparations
The best ways to get ready for the SAT I are to take challenging academic courses and to read widely outside school throughout your school years. Taking the PSAT/NMSQT® is another excellent way to get ready.

Preparation for the SAT II: Subject Tests varies for each test. For example, some Subject Tests (such as American History, Biology E/M, Chemistry, Physics) are best taken as soon as the course ends so the information is still fresh in your mind. You'll do better on other tests, like Writing and the language tests, after several years of study.

Before taking the SAT I: Reasoning Test or the SAT II: Subject Tests, familiarize yourself with the organization of the test, the types of questions that are included, and what to expect on test day.

 

SAT SAMPLE QUESTION

SAT Practice material that may help you to understand the type of questions of SAT Test

Here Sample questions of SAT are given for you to practice as well as to built concept about the SAT question pattern. This SAT practice paper will help you to score more in SAT exam.

SECTION 1

ESSAY
Time allowed: 25 Minutes

Turn to your answer sheet and write your essay on the lined portion of the page. To receive credit, you must write your essay in the area provided.

Write on the assigned topic below. If you write on any other topic, your essay will be given a score of zero.

Write or print legible: your readers will be unfamiliar with your handwriting, and you want them to be able to read what you write.

The statement below makes a point about a particular topic. Read the statement carefully, and think about the assignment that follow.

It is better to be underrated by people than to be overrated by them.

ASSIGNMENT: What are your thoughts on the statement above? Do you agree or disagree with the writer's assertion? Compose an essay in which you express your views on this topic. Your essay may support, refute, or qualify the view expressed in the statement. What you write, however, must be relevant to the topic under discussion. Additionally, you must support your viewpoint, indicating your reasoning and providing examples based on your studies and/or experience.

SECTION 2

20 Questions--25 Minutes

For each problem in this section determine which of the five choices is correct and blacken the corresponding choice on your answer sheet. You may use any blank space on the page for your work.

 

 

Notes: You may use a calculator whenever you think it will be helpful. Use the diagrams provided to help you solve the problems. Unless you see the words "Note: Figure not drawn to scale" under a diagram, it has been drawn as accurately as possible. Unless it is stated that a figure is three-dimensional, you may assume it lies in a plane.

 

 

Reference Information

1. In the figure above, what is the value of a?
   (A) 10     (B) 20     (C) 28     (D) 36     (E) 45
2. The Rivertown Little League is divided intoddivisions. Each division has t teams, and each team has p players. How many players are there in the entire league?
   (A) d + t + p     (B) dtp     (C) pt / d     (D) dt / p     (E) d / pt
3. What is the value of n if 2ⁿ⁺¹= 32?
   (A) 4     (B) 5     (C) 6     (D) 7     (E) 8
4. In the figure above, what is the value of a + b + c?
   (A) 210     (B) 220     (C) 240     (D) 270     (E) 280

Year	1990	1991	1992	1993	1994	1995
Number of tournaments	4	5	10	6	9	12

5. The chart above shows the number of tennis tournaments that Adam entered each year from 1990 through 1995. In what year did he enter 50% more tournaments than the year before?

(A) 1991

(B) 1992

(C) 1993

(D) 1994

(E) 1995

6. If, for any number b, b# = b + 1 and #b = b - 1, which of the following is NOT equal to (3#) (#5)?

(A) (1#) (#9)	(B) 7# + #9	(C) (4#) (#4)	(D) (7#) (#3)
(E) 15# / #2

7. Ifais a multiple of 5 and b = 5a, which of the following could be the value of a + b?
    I.  60
   II. 100
   III. 150

(A) II only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

8. If 3^a= b and 3^c= d, then bd =

(A) 3ac

(B) 3a + c

(C) 6a + c

(D) 9ac

(E) 9a+c

9. Ifrand s are two nonzero numbers and if 78(r + s) =  (78 + r)s, then which of the following must be true?

(A) r = 78

(B) s = 78

(C) r + s = rs

(D) r < 1

(E) s < 1

10. If it is now June, what month will it be 100 months from now?

(A) January

(B) April

(C) June

(D) October

(E) December

11. If the average (arithmetic mean) of three consecutive integers is A, which of the followingmustbe true?
    I.   One of the numbers is equal to A.
    II.  The average of two of the three numbers is A.
    III. A is an integer

(A) I only	(B) II only	(C) III only	(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III

12. A bag contains 25 slips of paper, on each of which a different integer from 1 to 25 is written. Blindfolded, Scott draws one of the slips of paper. He wins if the number on the slip he draws is a multiple of 3 or 5. What is the probability that Scott wins?

(A) 1 / 25

(B) 8 / 25

(C) 11 / 25

(D) 12 / 25

(E) 13 / 25

13. If m2 = 17, then what is the value of (m + 1) (m - 1)?

(A) √17 - 1

(B) √17 + 1

(C) 16

(D) 18

(E) 288

14. Which of the following points lies in the interior of the circle whose radius is 10 and whose center is at the origin?

(A) (-9, 4)

(B) (5, -9)

(C) (0, -10)

(D) (10, -1)

(E) (-6, 8)

15. Several shoppers were surveyed at a supermarket and asked how many people were in their families and how much money they spend each week on food. The data were graphed in the following scatterplot diagram.

If the average weekly cost of food per person for each of the seven families, A - G, was calculated, which one would be the median?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) D

(D) E

(E) G

16. Ifppencils cost c cents, how many pencils can be bought ford dollars?

(A) cdp

(B) 100cdp

(C) dp / 100c

(D) 100cd / p

(E) 100dp / c

17. Ifais increased by 10% and b is decreased by 10%, the resulting numbers will be equal. What is the ratio of a to b?

(A) 9 /11

(B) 9 / 10

(C) 1 / 1

(D) 10 / 9

(E) 11 / 9

18. In the figure at the right, line segmentsAFand CF partition pentagon ABCDE into a rectangle and two triangles. For which of the following can the value be determined?
    I.   a + b
    II.  b + c
    III. a + b + c + d

(A) II only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

19. Which of the following CANNOT be expressed as the sum of two or more consecutive positive integers?

(A) 17

(B) 22

(C) 24

(D) 26

(E) 32

20. In the figure above, the legs of right triangle ACB are diameters of the two semicircles. If AB = 4 what is the sum of the areas of the semicircles?

(A) π

(B) 2π

(C) 4π

(D) 8π

(E) 16π

SECTION 3

24 Questions--25 Minutes

Select the best answer to each of the following questions; then blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet.

 

 

Each of the following sentences contains one or two blanks; each blank indicates that a word or set of words has been left out. Below the sentence are five words or phrases, lettered A through E. Select the word or set of words that best completes the sentence.  Example:       Fame is ---------; today's rising star is all too soon tomorrow's washed-up has been. (A) rewarding (B) gradual (C) essential (D) spontaneous (E) transitory

1. Like foolish people who continue to live near an active volcano, many of us are --- about the --- of atomic warfare and its attendant destruction.

(A) worried...possibility
(B) unconcerned...threat
(C) excited...power
(D) cheered...possession
(E) irritated...news

2. By communicating through pointing and making gestures, Charles was able to overcome any --- difficulties that arose during his recent trip to Japan.

(A) peripatetic
(B) linguistic
(C) plausible
(D) monetary
(E) territorial

3. In order that future generations may --- the great diversity of animal life, it is the task of the International Wildlife Preservation Commission to prevent endangered species from becoming ---.

(A) recollect...tamed
(B) value...evolved
(C) enjoy...extinct
(D) anticipate...specialize
(E) appreciate...widespread

4. We find it difficult to translate a foreign text literally because we cannot capture the --- of the original passage exactly.

(A) novelty
(B) succinctness
(C) connotations
(D) ambivalence
(E) alienation

5. It is remarkable that a man so in the public eye, so highly praised and imitated, can retain his ---.

(A) magniloquence
(B) dogmas
(C) bravado
(D) idiosyncrasies
(E) humility

6. For all the --- involved in the study of seals, we Arctic researchers have occasional moments of pure --- over some new discovery.

(A) tribulations...despair
(B) hardships...exhilaration
(C) confusions...bewilderment
(D) inconvenience...panic
(E) thrills...delight

7. Despite the growing --- of Hispanic actors in the American theater, many Hispanic experts feel that the Spanish-speaking population is --- on the stage.

(A) decrease...inappropriate
(B) emergence...visible
(C) prominence...underrepresented
(D) skill...alienated
(E) number...misdirected

8. As sportscaster, Cosell was apparently never ---; he made --- comments about every boxing match he covered.

(A) excited...hysterical
(B) relevant...pertinent
(C) satisfied...disparaging
(D) amazed...awe-struck
(E) impressed...laudatory

Read each passage below, and then answer the questions that follow the passage. The correct response may be stated outright or merely suggested in the passage.

Questions 9 and 10 are based on the following passage.

The Rosetta Stone! What a providential find that was. And what a remarkable set of circumstances it took for people to be able to read Egyptian hieroglyphics after a hiatus of some 1400 years. It even took a military campaign. In 1798, Napoleon Bonaparte's army attacked British-held Egypt, seeking to cut off England from the riches of the Middle East. Rebuilding a fortress, a French soldier uncovered a block of basalt inscribed with writing in three distinct scripts; Greek, demotic script (an everyday cursive form of Egyptian), and Egyptian hieroglyphs. At that moment, modern Egyptology began.

9. The primary purpose of lines 1-5 is to

(A) describe the physical attributes of an artifact
(B) underscore the difficulty of translating ancient texts
(C) indicate a new direction for linguistic research
(D) qualify an excessively sweeping generalization
(E) emphasize the unusual background of a discovery

10. The author's tone in writing of the discovery of the Rosetta Stone can best be characterized as

(A) ironic
(B) enthusiastic
(C) condescending
(D) nostalgic
(E) objective

Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage.

A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man recounts the tale of Stephen Dedalus, a sensitive young Dubliner. As a child, he suffers because of his classmates' cruelty, his Jesuit teachers' authoritarianism, and his country's political turmoil. Growing older, Stephen becomes increasingly isolated from his friends, his church, and his country, viewing them all as heartless and hypocritical. Intent on becoming a writer, he eventually concludes he must sever all ties --- family, friends, church, and country---to achieve fulfillment as an artist. The hero must leave Ireland, leave the Church, to set off alone "to forge in the sanity of [his] soul the uncreated conscience of [his] race."

11. The passage as a whole suggests that achieving "fulfillment as an artist" (lines 9-10) might best be characterized as

(A) a modest accomplishment
(B) a worthwhile endeavor
(C) an unrealistic goal
(D) a painful process
(E) a passing phase

12. As used in line 11, the word "forge" most nearly means

(A) counterfeit
(B) fashion
(C) duplicate
(D) alter
(E) melt

Questions 13-24 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from a novel, Catherine's Aunt Lavinia comes to make her home with Catherine and her father and becomes involved in Catherine's upbringing.

When the child was about ten years old, he invited his sister, Mrs. Penniman, to come and stay with him. His sister Lavinia had married a poor clergyman, of a sickly constitution and of flowery style of eloquence, and then, at the age of thirty-three, had been left a widow - without children, without fortune - with nothing but the memory of Mr. Penniman's flowers of speech, a certain vague aroma of which hovered about her own conversation. Nevertheless, he had offered her a home under his own roof, which Lavinia accepted with the alacrity of a woman who had spent the ten years of her married life in the town of Poughkeepsie. The doctor had not proposed to Mrs. Penniman to come and live with him indifinitely; he had suggested that she should make an asylum of his house while she looked about for unfurnished lodgings. It is uncertain whether Mrs. Penniman ever instituted a search for unfurnished  lodgings, but it is beyond dispute that she never found them. She settled herself with her brother and never went away, and, when Catherine was twenty years old, her Aunt Lavinia was still one of the most striking features of her immediate entourage. Mrs. Penniman's own account of the matter was that she had remained to take charge of her niece's education. She had given this account, at least, to everyone but the Doctor, who never asked for explanations which he could entertain himself any day with inventing. Mrs. Penniman, moreover, though she had a good deal of a certain sort of artificial assurance, shrunk, for indefinable reasons, from presenting herself to her brother as a fountain of instruction. She had not a high sense of humor, but she had enough to prevent her from making this mistake; and her brother, on his side, had enough to excuse her, in her situation, for laying him under contribution during a considerable part of a lifetime. He therefore assented tacitly to the proposition which Mrs. Penniman had tacitly laid down, that it was of importance near her. His assent could only be tacit, for he had never been dazzled by his sister's intellectual luster. Save when he fell in love with Catherine Harrington, he had never been dazzled, indeed, by any feminine characteristics whatever; and though he was to a certain extent what is called a ladies' doctor, his private opinion of the more complicated sex was not exalted. He nevertheless, at the end of six months, accepted his sister's permanent presence as an accomplished fact, and as Catherine grew older, perceived that there were in effect good reasons why she should have a companion of her own imperfect sex. He was extremely polite to Lavinia, scrupulously, formally polite; and she had never seen him in anger but once in her life, when he lost his temper in a theological discussion with her late husband. With her he never discussed theology, nor, indeed, discussed anything; he contented himself with making known, very distinctly in the form of a lucid ultimatum, his wishes with regard to Catherine.

Once, when the girl was about twelve years old, he had said to her - "Try and make a clever woman of her, Lavinia; I should like her to be a clever woman."

Mrs. Penniman, at this, looked thoughtful a moment.

"My dear Austin," She then inquired, "do you think it is better to be clever than to be good?"

From this assertion Mrs. Penniman saw no reason to dissent; she possibly reflected that her own great use in the world was owing to her aptitude for many things.

"Of course I wish Catherine to be good," the Doctor said next day; "but she won't be any the less virtuous for not being a fool. I am not afraid of her being wicked; she will never have the salt of malice in her character. She is 'as good as good bread,' as the French say; but six years hence I don't want to have to compare her to good bread-and-butter."

"Are you afraid she will be insipid? My dear brother, it is I  who supply the butter; so you need not fear!" said Mrs. Penniman, who had taken in hand the child's "accomplishments," overlooking her at the piano, where Catherine displayed a certain talent, and going with her to the dancing class, where it must be confessed that she made but a modest figure.

13. The word "constitution" in line 4 means

(A) establishment

(B) charter

(C) ambience

(D) physique

(E) wit

14. From the description of how Mrs. Penniman came to live in her brother's home (line 1-12), we may infer all of the following EXCEPT that

(A) she readily became dependent on her brother
(B) she was married at the age of twenty-three
(C) she was physically delicate and in ill health
(D) she ad not found living in Poughkeepsie particularly gratifying
(E) she occasionally echoed an ornate manner of speech

15. The word "asylum" in line 14 means

(A) institution

(B) sanitarium

(C) refuge

(D) sanction

(E) shambles

16. In the passage the Doctor is portrayed most specifically as

(A) benevolent and retiring
(B) casual and easy-going
(C) sadly ineffectual
(D) civil but imperious
(E) habitually irate

17. Lines 25-29 introduce which aspect of the Doctor's and Mrs. Penniman's relationship?

(A) Their mutual admiration
(B) the guilt Mrs. Penniman feels about imposing on him
(C) The Doctor's burdensome sense of responsibility
(D) His inability to excuse her shortcomings
(E) Her relative lack of confidence in dealing with him

18. The reason the Doctor gives only tacit assent to Mrs. Penniman's excuse for living with him is that he

(A) actually regrets ever having allowed her to move in
(B) does not believe in his sister's purported brilliance
(C) objects to her taking part in his daughter's education
(D) is unable to reveal the depth of his respect for her
(E) does not wish to embarrass his sister with his praise

19. It can be inferred that the Doctor views children primarily as

(A) a source of joy and comfort in old age
(B) innocent sufferers for the sins of their fathers
(C) clay to be molded into an acceptable image
(D) the chief objective of the married state
(E) their parents' sole chance for immortality

20. The word "reflected" in line 63 means

(A) mirrored	(B) glittered	(C) considered	(D) indicated
(E) reproduced

21. In lines 70 and 71, the Doctor's analogy to "good bread-and-butter" is used to emphasize

(A) the wholesomeness of Catherine's character
(B) his fear that his daughter may prove virtuous but uninteresting
(C) the discrepancy between Catherine's nature and her education
(D) his hostility toward his sister's notions of proper diet
(E) his appreciation of the simple things in life

22. The word "overlooking" in line 75 means

(A) ignoring
(B) slighting
(C) forgiving
(D) watching over
(E) towering above

23. Mrs. Penniman's opinion of her ability to mold Catherine successfully (lines 72 and 73) can best be described as

(A) characteristically modest
(B) moderately ambivalent
(C) atypically judicious
(D) unrealistically optimistic
(E) cynically dispassionate

24. The remarks about Catherine in the last paragraph reveal her

(A) limited skill as a dancer
(B) virtuosity as a pianist
(C) shyness with her dancing partners
(D) indifference to cleverness
(E) reluctance to practice

SECTION 4

35 Questions - 25 Minutes

Select the best answer to each of the following questions; then blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet.

 

 

Some or all parts of the following sentences are underlines. The first answer choice, (A), simply repeats the underlined part of the sentence. The other four choices present four alternative ways to phrase the underlined part. Select the answer that produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact, and blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet. In selecting your choice, be sure that it is standard written English, and that is expresses the meaning of the original sentence. Example: The first biography of author Eudora Welty came out in 1998and she was 89 years old at the time. (A) and she was 89 years old at the time (B) at the time when she was 89 (C) upon becoming an 89 year old (D) when she was 89 (E) at the age of 89 years old

1. In the tennis match Donwas paired with Bill; Ed, with AI.
   (A) was paired with Bill; Ed, with AI
   (B) was paired with Bill; but Ed was paired with AI
   (C) was paired with Bill, and it was Ed with AI
   (D) pairing with Bill; Wd being with AI
   (E) pairing with Bill; Ed was with AI
2. In the Middle Ages, a lord's intricate wall hangings were more thanmere tapestries they were a measureof his consequence and wealth.

(A) mere tapestries they were a measure
(B) merely tapestries they were a measure
(C) mere tapestries and were a measure
(D) mere tapestries; they were a measure
(E) mere tapestries, while they were a measure

3. With the exception ofFrank and I, everyone in the class finishedthe assignment before the bell rang.

(A) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished
(B) Frank and me, everyone in the class finished
(C) Frank and me, everyone in the class had finished
(D) Frank and I, everyone in the class finished

4. The automated teller machine is an efficient device for handling financialtransactions; it is sure to be superseded in time, however, when the growth of electronic banking will make it obsolete.

(A) transactions; its sure to be superseded in time, however,
(B) transaction, for it is sure to be superseded in time, however,
(C) transaction; however, surely being superseded in time
(D) transaction, being sure to be superseded in time
(E) transactions; but will be sure to be superseded in time

5. It is possible for a student to do well in class all semester andthen you failbecause of a poor performance on the final examination.

(A) then you fail
(B) then one fails
(C) then you get a failing grade
(D) later he fails
(E) then to fail

6. Having an exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glennto participate in a study of the effects of space weightlessness on the human body.

(A) Having and exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn
(B) NASA officials who chose 77-year-old John Glenn for his exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique
(C) Based on his exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, 77-year-old John Glenn was chosen by NASA officials
(D) Because his physiques was exceptionally hardy and well-preserved, NASA officials chose 77-year-old John Glenn
(E) Having an exceptionally hardy and well-preserved physique, NASA officials therefore chose 77-year-old John Glenn

7. In addition to being vital to the formation and maintenance of strong bones and teeth,calcium is used by the body in transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones.

(A) calcium is used by the body is transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
(B) the body uses calcium in transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones
(C) calcium's uses include transmitting  nerve impulses, binding together cells, and the production of enzymes and hormones
(D) transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones are ways in which the body is using calcium
(E) in the body calcium being used for transmitting nerve impulses, binding together cells, and producing enzymes and hormones

8. As the protest mounted, smallskirmishes between students and police that brokeout everywhere, flaring up like sudden brush fires on all sides.

(A) skirmishes between student and police that broke
(B)  skirmishes between student and police which broke
(C)  skirmishes between student and police broke
(D)  skirmishes between student and police  which were breaking
(E)  skirmishes between student and police  breaking

9. Great plans for the future were made by Huck and Tom thatdepended on their finding the gold hidden in the cave.

(A) Great plans for the future were made by Huck and Tom that
(B) Great plans fro the future were made by Huck and Tom which
(C) Huck and Tom, who made great plans for the future that
(D) Huck and Tom made great plans for the future that
(E) Great plans for the future were being made by Huck and Tom that

10. Many classic recordings have been reissuedin compact disc format, some perennial favorites have not.

(A) Many classic recordings have been reissued
(B) Many classic recordings have reissued
(C) Many a classic recording have been reissued
(D) Despite many classic recordings which have been reissued
(E) Although many classic recordings have been reissued

11. Although now engaged in writing background music for television show,his next musical project will be to compose a symphonyin memory of the Challenger crew.

(A) his next musical project will be to compose a symphony
(B) the next musical project he will undertake will be the composition of a symphony
(C) he will next compose a symphony
(D) therefore the will next compose a symphony
(E) his next musical project will be the composition of a symphony

The sentences in this section may contain errors in grammar, usage, choice of words, or idioms. Either there is just one error in a sentence or the sentence is correct. Some words or phrases are underlined and lettered; everything else in the sentence is correct. If an underlined word or phrase is incorrect, choose that letter; if the sentence is correct, select No error. Then blacken the appropriate space on your answer sheet. Example: The region has a climate so severe that plants growing thererarely had been more than twelve inches high. No error

12. Itwas reportedthat the identities of them to be called aswitnesses would be released on Tuesday by the district attorney.No error
13. The adstatedthat a piano was needed for the school play in good condition. No error
14. The fishingfleetleft the harbor when the fisherman heard that a school of bluefish were near the wreak. No error
15. In considerationabouthis ling service to the theater, the Tony Awards committee made a special presentation honoringproducer George Abbott, who had recently celebrated hishundredth birthday. No error
16. A minority groupcomprising30% of the community andrepresented by only one member out of 25 on the City Council.No error
17. In spite of a superficial simplicity, therearemany aspects of the prose style of Ernest Hemingway that would be profitable subjects for further study. No error
18. AmongGeorge, Henry, and I, there can be no secrets. No error
19. Neitherthe reporters nor the editor were satisfied with the salary offer made by the publisher. No error
20. The workerswhoI see the subway every afternoon seem tired and dejected. No error
21. The articlewas rejectedbecause of its length, verbosity, andit presented only one point of view. No error
22. Mr. Jones'sdecisionto retire came as a shock to all whorespected his ability. No error
23. When she spoke with the police, she reported herloss; she states that alarge quantity of clothing and of valuable jewelrywere missing. No error
24. Betweenthe small shops and boutiques of Greenwich village and the giant department stores of midtown Manhattan lie the ethnically varied residential neighborhood of Chelsea. No error
25. Bailingvigorously, we managed to remain afloat until we were rescued by the Coast Guard. No error
26. Wehad oughtto finish out trip before dark because it gets very cold after the sun goes down. No error
27. Doesthat remark infer that you are displeased with the way Iam managing the business? No error
28. The success ofrecentVictorian art exhibitions in London, Paris, and New York illustrate a shift in both scholarly assessment and public taste. No error
29. Just assome teenagers adore video games, so otherscondemn it as a utter waste of time. No error

The passage below is the unedited draft of a student's essay. Parts of the essay need to be rewritten to make the meaning clearer and more precise. Read the essay carefully. The essay is followed by six questions about changes that might improve all or part of the organization, development, sentence structure, use of language, appropriateness to the audience, or use of standard written English. In each case, choose the answer the most clearly and effectively expresses the student's intended meaning. Indicate your choice by blackening the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

[1] Teenagers under eighteen can now receive a major credit card as long as the credit card's use is supervised by a parent or guardian. [2] This is a good idea since it gives these teenagers the responsibility of managing their money. [3] Another is because teenagers can develop good habits of spending that will be useful later in life.

[4] A teenagers can legally hold a job at age sixteen. [5] This means that many teenagers have a steady income, which they should be able to spend as they wish. [6] Being in control of their own finances not only teaches them the value of money but how to spend it wisely.

[7] An example of a teenager with a credit card is Bonita Robbins. [8] Bonita is a junior in high school. [9] She is seventeen years old. [10] She works after school in a real estate office. [11] She earns about $100 a week. [12] After three months of work she applied for a credit card. [13] Her bank gave her one but said that there will be a "trial period" in which her parent will be responsible. [14] Most of the time Bonita paid her bills punctually and on time. [15] However, during one month Bonita charged more than she could pay, so her parents loaned her the money. [16] The next month Bonita saved her income and paid it back. [17] This was a good lesson for Bonita, because next time she'll probably be more careful about spending money.

[18] This plan also lets the parents and the teenagers plan how the credit card will be used. [19] teenagers might use the card freely to buy things for less that $25. [20] For items costing more, talk to your parents before buying them. [21] Parents could help their teenager to plan a budget or set priorities for spending money. [22] Since parents are going to assume responsibility for the card's use or abuse, they will way to have some input on how it will be used.

30. Which is the best revision of  the underlined segment of sentence 3 below?

Another is because teenagers can develop good habits of spending that will be useful later in life.

(A) reason is because teenagers develop
(B) reason is that teenagers may develop
(C) idea is due to the fact that teenagers may develop
(D) may come about due to teenagers' developing
(E) idea may be because teenagers develop

31. Given the context of paragraph 3, which revision of sentences 8, 9, 10, and 11 is the most effective?

(A) Bonita, a junior in high school, earning about $100 a week by working after school in a real estate office, is seventh years old.
(B) As a junior in high school and being seventeen, she works after school in a real estate office, earns about $100 a week.
(C) A seventh-year-old high school junior, she earns $100 a week at an after-school job in a real office.
(D) Bonita Robbins earns office; she is seventeen and is a high school junior.
(E) Being a junior in high school, Bonita, seventeen years old, earning about $100 a week in a real estate office at an after-school job.

32. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 14?

(A) Bills were paid punctually.
(B) Usually Bonita had paid her bills on time.
(C) Most of the time the bills were paid by Bonita on time.
(D) Usually Bonita paid her bills punctually and on time.
(E) Usually Bonita paid her bills when they were due.

33. With regard to the whole essay, which of the following best describes the function of paragraph 3?

(A) To summarize the discussion presented in earlier paragraphs
(B) To persuade readers to change their point of view
(C) To provide an example
(D) To ridicule an idea presented earlier in the essay
(E) To draw a conclusion

34. Which revision of the underlined segment of sentence 18 below provides the best transition between the third and fourth paragraphs?

This plan also lets the parents and the teenagers plan how the credit card will be used.

(A) Another advantage of this plan is that it
(B) Another advantage of "trial" credit card program like Bonita's is that it
(C) A different advantage to Bonita's experience
(D) All of a sudden, it
(E) Together, it

35. In the context of the fourth paragraph, which is the best revision of sentence 20?

(A) Before buying items worth more teenagers might consult a parent.
(B) Teenagers should be talking to their parents before buying something that costs more that $25.
(C) But first talking about things costing more than $25 between parents and teenagers.
(D) First teenagers and parents must talk before buying something that costs more than $25.
(E) Buying something that costs more than $25 to purchase must be talked over between parents and teenagers beforehand.

The questions on remaining sections 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 are similar to the section 1, 2, and 3.